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5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.

MCQs for Lab Technician

2151 to 2200 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation

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Questions 2151 to 2200

Go to Mock Test Chapter 44
  1. Hypocupremia is seen in
    1. osetoporosis, nephrotic disease
    2. sprue, cliac disease
    3. cardiovascular disease, colon cancer
    4. A andB
    5. B and C
    6. All of the above ✔
  2. Wilsons disease can cause liver problems
    1. True ✔
    2. False
    3. Both
    4. none
  3. What are the treatment options for wilson’s disease?
    1. A. Pencillamine
    2. B. Riboflavin
    3. C. Trientine
    4. D. Potassium disulfide
    5. E. Zinc
    6. A, B and C
    7. A, C, and D
    8. A, C, D, and E ✔
  4. Aplasia can occur because of riboflavin deficiency?
    1. True ✔
    2. False
    3. Both
    4. none
  5. Angular stomatitis. cheilosis is a symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency?
    1. True
    2. False ✔
    3. Both
    4. none
  6. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
    1. Hemosiderin
    2. Ferritin ✔
    3. Transferrin
    4. Hemoglobin
  7. Which test can be used to detect hemolytic anemia?
    1. Coombs test ✔
    2. Genetic testing
    3. Peripheral blood smear (PBS)
    4. Schilling test
  8. Which anemia is classified as not being able to use iron properly to synthesize hemoglobin because of a inherited cause.
    1. Iron deficiency anemia
    2. hypochromic anemia ✔
    3. aplastic anemia
  9. what is normal fasting Blood sugar,
    1. 100-200
    2. 70-110 ✔
    3. 90_120
    4. None
  10. This fatal disorder results from clot/thrombus formation in the blood ciruclation
    1. thromboembolism
    2. DVT
    3. PAD
    4. Pulmonary embolism
    5. All of the above ✔
  11. Homan’s sign is classified as pain behind the knee
    1. True ✔
    2. False
    3. None
  12. Patients that are sensitive to aspirin can take
    1. Sulfinpyrazone
    2. Clopidogrel
    3. Ticlopidine
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3 ✔
  13. What is the life span of RBC
    1. 120 ✔
    2. 100
    3. 200
    4. 80
  14. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
    1. Hemosiderin
    2. Ferritin ✔
    3. Transferrin
    4. Hemoglobin
  15. The most common type of protein found in the cell membrane is:
    1. Lipoprotein
    2. Mucoprotein
    3. Glycoprotein ✔
    4. Nucleoprotein
  16. A multilineage cytokine among the ILs is
    1. IL-1 ✔
    2. IL-2
    3. IL-3
    4. IL-4
  17. Warfarin should be used with caution in the following:
    1. Alcoholic liver disease
    2. Gastrointestinal bleeding
    3. recent neurosugery
    4. Liver impairment ✔
  18. Isozymes of 2C can greatly effect warfarin
    1. True ✔
    2. False
    3. none
  19. absolute lymphocytosis 5000/mm^3) without adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System?
    1. Stage 0 ✔
    2. Stage I
    3. Stage II
    4. Stage III
    5. Stage IV
  20. Conventional treatment is Rai stage II for
    1. Antibiotics
    2. chemotherapy ✔
    3. Antivirals
    4. rest
  21. In patients with low numbers of neoplastic cells, sometimes due to treatment, PCR to amplify DNA can improve sensitivity, and detect signs of relapse.
    1. True ✔
    2. False
    3. none
  22. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is most common leukemia in what kind of people? Slide 4
    1. young adults
    2. older adults ✔
    3. None
  23. absolute lymphocytosis and thrombocytopenia( < 100,000/mm^3) with or without lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, or anemia is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System?
    1. Stage 0
    2. Stage I
    3. Stage II
    4. Stage III
    5. Stage IV ✔
  24. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia is characterized by peripheral blood and bone marrow
    1. lymphocytopenia
    2. lymphocytosis ✔
  25. absolute lymphocytosis with either hepatomegaly or splenomegaly with or without lymphadenopathy is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System?
    1. Stage 0
    2. Stage II
    3. Stage II ✔
    4. Stage II
    5. Stage Iv
  26. absolute lymphocytosis without lymphadenopathy without hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, or thrombocytopenia is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring Rai Staging System?
    1. Stage 0
    2. Stage I ✔
    3. Stage II
    4. Stage II
    5. Stage IV
  27. IN Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia the Lymphocyte appearance: small or slightly larger than normal, hyper?condensed(almost. nuclear chromatin patter, bare nuclei called “smuA. sdge cells” are common.
    1. occer-ball ✔
    2. basketball
    3. football
    4. tennis-ball
  28. Which of the following forms of Hh molecule has the lowest affinity for oxygen?
    1. Tense ✔
    2. Relaxed
    3. Arterial
    4. Venous
  29. What is the recommended cleaner for removing all oil from objective lens?
    1. 70 % alcohol or lens cleaner ✔
    2. Xylene
    3. Water
    4. Benzene
  30. Intravascular hemolysis is the result of trauma to RBCs while in the circulation
    1. True ✔
    2. False
  31. Blood Hb level changes in mornging and evening Time.
    1. 1gm%
    2. 2gm%
    3. 1.5Gm% ✔
    4. 2.5gm%
  32. The shape of a cell is maintained by which of the following?
    1. Microtubules ✔
    2. Spindle Fibers
    3. Ribosomes
    4. Centrioles
  33. At which month of fetal development does the bone marrow become the primary site of hematopoiesis?
    1. 2nd
    2. 5th
    3. End of 6th month ✔
    4. End of 7th month
  34. Which types of cells develop from yolk sacs (Mesoblastic phase)?
    1. Hb F, Hg A2, and Hg A
    2. Gower 1 and Gower 2 Hgb
    3. Portland Hgb
    4. Only Erythrobla ✔
  35. Normal Adult Hb A contains the following polypeptide chains:
    1. alpha and beta ✔
    2. alpha and epsilon
    3. alpha and delta
    4. alpha and brotherton
  36. Allergic reactions are frequently associated with an increase in the prescence of:
    1. Lymphocytes
    2. Neutrophils
    3. Monocytes
    4. Eosinophils ✔
  37. Lipid exchange between the RBC membrane and the plasma occurs:
    1. To replace lost lipids in the membrane ✔
    2. To provide a mechanism for excretion of lipid-soluble RBC waste products
    3. To ensure symmetry between the composition of the interior and exterior lipid layers
    4. To provide lipid-soluble nutrients to the RBC
  38. After the microscope has been adjusted for Kohler illumination, light intensity should never be regulated by using the…
    1. Rheostat
    2. Neutral density filter
    3. Kohler magnifier
    4. Condenser ✔
  39. Which of the followong types of microscopy is valuable in the identification of crystals that are able to rotate ight?
    1. Compound brightfield
    2. Darkfield
    3. Polarizing ✔
    4. Phase-contrast
  40. During the Medullary Phase of hematopoietic development, which bone is the first to show hematopoietic activity?
    1. Femur
    2. Iliac Crest
    3. Skull
    4. Clavicle ✔
  41. Given the following values, calculate the RPI Observed reticulocyte count – 6% Hct-30°%
    1. 2 ✔
    2. 3
    3. 4
    4. 5
  42. The lipids of the RBC membrane are arranged:
    1. In chains beneath a protein exoskeleton
    2. So that the hydrophobic portions are facing the plasma
    3. In a hexagonal lattice
    4. In two layers that are not symmetric in composition ✔
  43. The hexose monophosphate pathway activity increases the RBC source of
    1. Glucose and lactic acid
    2. 2,3-BPG and methemoglobin
    3. NADPH and reduced glutathione ✔
    4. ATP and other purine metabolites
  44. Which single feature of normal RBC’s is most responsible for limiting their life span?
    1. Loss of mitochondria
    2. Increased flexibility of the cell membrane
    3. Reduction of Hb iron
    4. Loss of nucleus ✔
  45. In the Iron cycle, the transferrin receptor carries:
    1. Iron out of duodenal cells from the intestinal lumen
    2. Iron out of duodenal cells into the plasma
    3. transferrin-bound iron in the plasma ✔
    4. transferrin-bound iron into erythrocytes
  46. A multilineage cytokine among the ILs is
    1. IL-1 ✔
    2. IL-2
    3. IL-3
    4. IL-4
  47. Which of the following cells may develop in sites other than the bone marrow?
    1. Monocyte
    2. Lymphocyte ✔
    3. Megakaryocyte
    4. Neutrophil
  48. The acceptable range for hemoglobin values on a control sample is 13+or-0.4 g/dL. A hemoglobin determination is performed five times in succession on the same control sample. The results are (in g/dL. 12 12.3,12, 12.2, and 12.1) These results are:
    1. Precise, but not accurate ✔
    2. Both accurate and precise
    3. Accurate, but not precise
    4. Neither accurate nor precise
  49. The layer of the erythrocyte membrane that is largely responsible for the shape, structure, and deformability of the cell is the
    1. Integral protein
    2. Exterior lipid
    3. Peripheral protein ✔
    4. Interior lipid
  50. During midfetal life, the primary source of blood cells is the:
    1. Bone marrow
    2. Spleen
    3. Lymph Nodes
    4. Liver ✔
Go to Mock Test Chapter 44
<< Chapter 43
Chapter 45 >>

The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.

To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.

Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.

Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.

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