5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.
2101 to 2150 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation
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Questions 2101 to 2150
- Specific gravity of urine less than 1.010 indicates
- Diabetes millitus
- Diabetes insipidus ✔
- Diabetic ketoacidosis
- None of the above
- ‘Glucose memory test’ is
- GCT
- HbA1c ✔
- GTT
- PPBS
- Which of the following is not a renal function test ?
- Serum urea
- Serum creatinine
- Cystatin – C
- Total cholesterol ✔
- Who is known as ‘father of microbiology’ ?
- Louis Pasteur ✔
- Robert Koch
- Alexander Fleming
- Edward Jenner
- Serum electrolytes are analysed using
- Calorimeter
- Flamephotometer ✔
- Spectrophotometer
- None of these
- Van-den-Bergh reaction is used to detect
- Serum creatinine
- Serum urea
- Serum bilirubin ✔
- Blood glucose
- Cob-Web appearance of clot in CSF indicates
- Jaundice
- Haemorrhage
- Spinal constriction
- Tuberculous meningitis ✔
- _ is otherwise known as ‘bad cholesterol’.
- LDL ✔
- HDL
- VLDL
- Chylomicrons
- All the following are motile bacteria except
- E.Coli
- Klebsiella ✔
- Vibrio
- Proteus
- Oils and grease can be sterilised using
- autoclave
- vaccine bath
- hot air oven ✔
- none of these
- Solidifying agent of a culture media is
- peptone
- meat extract
- Sodium chloride
- agar ✔
- __ is added to Mac Conkeys agar to inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria.
- Bile salt ✔
- Peptone
- Neutral red
- Agar
- All the following are examples of transport media except
- VR medium
- Thioglycollate medium ✔
- Stuarts medium
- Amies medium
- Which of the following tests come under IMViC tests ?
- Coagulase test
- Catalase test
- Citrate utilisation test ✔
- None of above
- The type of immunoglobulin which provides local immunity is
- IgM
- IgD
- IgG
- IgA ✔
- Confirmatory tests for AIDs is
- Western blot ✔
- Southern blot
- ELISA
- CLIA
- The bacteria which require ‘X’ and ‘V’ factors for its growth is
- staphylococcus
- haemophilus ✔
- brucella
- salmonella
- RPR and VDRL tests are done for the diagnosis of
- AIDs
- Hepatitis
- Syphilis ✔
- Malaria
- All the following are examples of blood parasites except
- Plasmodium
- Brugia malayi
- Leishmania
- Giardia lamblia ✔
- The fixative used for blood containing specimen is
- Carnoy’s fluid ✔
- 95% ethyl alcohol
- 10% formalin
- Zenker’s fluid
- Staining technique for assessment of hormonal status is
- Pap stain
- Shorrs stain ✔
- H & E stain
- JSB stain
- The ‘word’ which refers to the ‘closeness of a result on repeated analysis’ is
- accuracy
- Sensitivity
- precision ✔
- specificity
- ‘Mycology’ means the study of
- immunity
- Bacteria
- parasites
- fungus ✔
- Infections induced by a ‘physician’ is known as
- iatrogenic ✔
- nosocomial
- congenital
- subclinical
- The enzyme estimation done for the diagnosis of pancreatitis
- acid phosphatase
- amylase ✔
- alkaline phosphatase
- creatinine kinase
- The basic component of Leishman’s stain is
- cosin
- malachite green
- methelene blue ✔
- none of the above
- Name the blood cells increased in asthma
- basophil
- neutrophil
- lymphocyte
- cosinophil ✔
- Intermediate host of plasmodium is
- man ✔
- female anopheles mosquito
- male anopheles mosquito
- none of the above
- Which of the following is a Romanowsky stain
- Leishmans stain
- Giemsas stain
- Jenners stain
- All the above ✔
- In wintrobes mixture, ammonium oxalate and potassium oxalate is mixed in the ratio
- 2 : 3
- 3 : 2 ✔
- 1 : 4
- 2 : 1
- The anticoagulant used in OFT is
- EDTA
- Citrate
- Heparin ✔
- Sodium flouride-potassium oxalate mixture
- The bacteria showing swarming growth is
- E.coli
- Salmonella
- Proteus ✔
- All the above
- To remove blood clots from blood pipette, it is immersed in
- KOH ✔
NH_4OH
- INHCl
- 3% acetic acid
- Incomplete antibodies are detected using
- Electrophoresis
- Coombs test ✔
- Agglutination test
- VDRL test
- Causes spurious decrease in MCV
- Cryofibrinogen ✔
- hyperglycemia
- autoaggutination
- high WBC ct
- reduced red cell deformability
- When the entire CBC is suppressed due to either anemia,infection, or hemorrhage is called?
- Erythroplasia
- Thrombocytopenia
- Pancytopenia ✔
- Leukopenia
- Total RBC count for Women is?
- 4.4-6
- 4.2-5
- 4.0-5.0 ✔
- 4.2-5.2
- Total RBC for men?
- 4.0-5.0
- 4.6-6.0 ✔
- 4.2-6.5
- 4.0-6.0
- What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
- Hemosiderin
- Ferritin ✔
- Transferrin
- Hemoglobin
- The best source of active bone marrow from a 20-year old would be:
- Iliac Crest (hip) ✔
- Femur (thigh)
- Distal radius (forearm)
- Tibia (shin)
- Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices: Determination of relative size of RBC. 82-98 f1
- MCH
- MCV ✔
- MCHC
- PCV
- Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices: Measurement of average weight of Hb/RBC. 27-33 pg
- MCH
- MCV ✔
- MCHC
- PCV
- Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices Evaluation of RBC saturation with Hb. 32-36%
- MCV
- MCH
- MCHC ✔
- PCV
- There are 3 classifications of Anemia. What are they?
- In adequate production of Hb ✔
- Decreased RBC production
- Increased Erythrocyte destruction
- Blood loss
- What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
- Hemosiderin
- Ferritin ✔
- Transferrin
- Hemoglobin
- Folic acid therapy can cause sickle cell anemia
- True
- False ✔
- Both
- none
- Hydroxyurea increases hemoglobin production and decreases reticulocyte cells.
- True ✔
- False
- Both
- none
- Hydroxyurea:
- decreases nitric oxide
- increases neutrophil and monocytes
- inhibits DNA synthesis by acting as aribonucleotide reductase inhibitor ✔
- none
- Hydroxyurea icreases thhe serum uric acid levels.
- True ✔
- False
- Both
- none
- Decitabine increases the fetal hemoglobin production by inducing methylation of DNA and thus prevents the switch from gamma to beta-globin production.
- True
- False ✔
- Both
- none
The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.
To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.
Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.
Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.
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