Chapter 3: MCQs for Doctors

Chapter 3: MCQs for Doctors and Medical Students for Exams and Interviews

5000 Plus MCQs for Doctors and Medical Students for Exams and Interviews. MCQs have long been a staple of medical education, and they continue to play a crucial role in the assessment of doctors and medical students. These questions typically consist of a stem, or a statement that poses a problem or question, followed by several options or answer choices, only one of which is correct. Doctors MCQs cover a wide range of topics, from basic sciences to clinical medicine, and they are used in a variety of contexts, including medical school exams, licensing and certification exams, and continuing medical education.

101 to 150 MCQs for Doctors and Medical Students for Exams and Interviews

Doctors MCQs cover a wide range of topics, from basic sciences to clinical medicine, and they are used in a variety of contexts, including medical school exams, licensing and certification exams, and continuing medical education.

101 to 150 MCQs

101. Which of the following describes a person using words that have no known meaning?
     1. Neologisms ✔
     2. Neolithic
     3. Verbalism
     4. Delusional blocking
102. Which of the following is the mRNA start codon in most cases?
     1. UAA
     2. AGU
     3. AUG ✔
     4. UGA
103. Which of the types of RNA is the smallest?
     1. mRNA
     2. tRNA ✔
     3. rRNA
104. Signs of low perfusion include all except.
     1. Hypotension
     2. Tachycardia
     3. High Urine Output ✔
     4. Poor Capillary refill
105. Balanced General Anesthesia includes
     1. Skeletal muscle relaxant
     2. Loss of consciousness
     3. Analgesia
     4. All of the above ✔
106. Depolarizing block may be done by
     1. Atracurium
     2. Neostegmin
     3. Succinylcholine ✔
     4. Rocuronuim
107. Intravenous regional anesthesia is more commonly used for operations of .
     1. Neck surgeries
     2. Lower abdomen
     3. Upper limbs ✔
     4. Lower limbs
108. Regarding morphine, all are true Except
     1. Respiratory depression … effect
     2. Can be IV subcutaneously, rectally and epidurally
     3. Can cause nausea and vomiting
     4. Less effective against pain of myocardial ischemia ✔
109. ASA III is
     1. Normal, healthy patient
     2. Patient with mild, well controlled systemic disease
     3. Patient with sever systemic disease that limits activity ✔
     4. Patient with sever life threatening disease
110. Premedication that can be given
     1. Anxiolysis
     2. Anti- emetic
     3. Antacid
     4. All of the above ✔

111. Mallampati grade suggests difficult intubation
     1. Grade I
     2. Grade II
     3. Grade IV ✔
     4. All of the above
112. Factor at increase risk of aspiration includes
     1. Drinking clear fluids 8 hours before operation
     2. Gastro esophageal reflux ✔
     3. Chewing gum
     4. Two hours preoperative oral clear fluid administration
113. In 70 kg patient one unit of platelet concentrate should increase platelet count
     1. 2000 – 5000 mm3
     2. 5000 – 10000 mm3 ✔
     3. 10000 – 20000 mm3
     4. More than 20000 ;mm3
114. The following are the classical hemolytic transfusion reaction in general anesthesia except
     1. Hypotension
     2. Wheezing
     3. Hemoglobinuria
     4. Bradycardia ✔
115. The mean arterial pressure of a blood pressure of 160/80 is
     1. 90 mmHg
     2. 100 mmHg
     3. 110 mmHg ✔
     4. 120 mmHg
116. Indication of rapid sequence anesthesia include all except
     1. Patient ASA I undergoing elective cholecytectomy. ✔
     2. Patient presented with bowel obstruction
     3. Morbid Obesity Patients
     4. Pregnancy
117. Thiopental (sodium thiopental, Thiopentone, STP) characterized by the following except
     1. Prepares as a pale yellow 10.5 (alkaline)
     2. After iv bolus, rapidly …
     3. Effects include decrease cerebral blood flow and O2 requirements
     4. Has good analgesic … ✔
118. An ECG is performed and reveals a progressively increasing PR interval and dropping of QRS complexes at regular intervals. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
     1. First-degree heart block
     2. Second-degree heart block (Mobitz type 2)
     3. Second-degree heart block (Mobitz type 1) ✔
     4. Hyperkalaemia
119. What view of the heart do leads V1 and V2 represent?
     1. Inferior
     2. Septal ✔
     3. Anterior
     4. Lateral
120. Which artery is most likely to be affected in the context of ST elevation being present in leads V3 and V4?
     1. Left anterior descending coronary artery ✔
     2. Right coronary artery
     3. All of the above
     4. Left circumflex coronary artery
121. What is the most common cause of left axis deviation?
     1. Defects of the conduction system ✔
     2. Left ventricular hypertrophy
     3. Right ventricular hypertrophy
     4. Atrial septal defects
122. Which of the following is a common cause of right axis deviation?
     1. Right ventricular hypertrophy ✔
     2. Ventricular septal defect
     3. Left ventricular hypertrophy
     4. Atrial septal defect
123. What does ST-elevation suggest?
     1. Myocardial infarction ✔
     2. Heart murmur
     3. Heart block – Mobitz type II
     4. Bundle branch block
124. A patient is noted to have an abnormally shortened PR-interval on their ECG. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
     1. Right bundle branch block
     2. Atrioventricular nodal fibrosis
     3. Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome ✔
     4. Left bundle branch block
125. If ST-elevation was noted in leads II, III and aVF, what would it suggest?
     1. A posterior myocardial infarction
     2. An inferior myocardial infarction ✔
     3. A septal myocardial infarction
     4. An anterior myocardial infarction
126. What view of the heart do leads V3 and V4 represent ?
     1. Anterior✔
     2. Septal
     3. Inferior
     4. Lateral
127. What is the normal duration of a QRS complex?
     1. 0.04 seconds (1 small square)
     2. 0.08 seconds (2 small squares)
     3. 0.16 seconds (4 small squares)
     4. 0.12 seconds (3 small squares) ✔
128. If there were 3 large squares in an R-R interval what would the heart rate be?
     1. 70 bpm
     2. 80 bpm
     3. 90 bpm
     4. 100 bpm ✔
129. What view of the heart do leads I, aVL, V5 and V6 represent?
     1. Inferior
     2. Septal
     3. Lateral ✔
     4. Anterior
130. An ECG reveals an absence of P-waves and an irregular rhythm. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
     1. 2nd-degree heart block
     2. 1st-degree heart block
     3. Atrial fibrillation ✔
     4. Ventricular tachycardia

131. What is the duration of a normal PR-interval?
     1. 0.04 – 0.08 seconds (1-2 small squares)
     2. 0.08 – 0.12 seconds (2-3 small squares)
     3. 0.12 – 0.2 seconds (3-5 small squares) ✔
     4. 0.04 – 0.12 seconds (1-3 small squares)
132. What view of the heart do leads II, III and aVF represent?
     1. Inferior ✔
     2. Septal
     3. Lateral
     4. Anterior
133. Which of the following are functions of progesterone?
     1. Inhibition of oestrogen production
     2. Inhibition of LH and FSH production ✔
     3. Initiation of the secretory phase of the endometrium ✔
     4. Increase in basal body temperature ✔
134. Where are luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) produced?
     1. Hypothalamus
     2. Anterior pituitary ✔
     3. Posterior pituitary
     4. Adrenal glands
135. At which stage in the uterine cycle does the proliferative phase occur?
     1. Days 1-5
     2. Days 5-14 ✔
     3. Days 15-28
136. Which of the following symptoms indicate that a woman is about to ovulate?
     1. Decrease in basal body temperature
     2. Increase in basal body temperature ✔
     3. Thickening of cervical mucous
     4. Thinning of cervical mucous
137. Where is gonadotrophin-releasing hormone produced?
     1. Anterior pituitary
     2. Posterior pituitary
     3. Hypothalamus ✔
     4. Adrenal glands
138. At which point in the menstrual cycle is a woman most fertile?
     1. Days 1-5
     2. Days 9-16 ✔
     3. Days 17-21
     4. Days 22-28
139. Which of the following statements are true about menstruation?
     1. In a normal 28 day menstrual cycle you would expect menstruation to last approximately 3-5 days. ✔
     2. During menstruation the entire endometrium is shed.
     3. During menstruation only the functional layer of the endometrium is shed, with the basal layer remaining intact. ✔
     4. Absence of menstruation always indicates an active pregnancy.
140. At which stage of the uterine cycle does the menstrual phase occur?
     1. Days 1-5 ✔
     2. Days 5-14
     3. Days 14-28
141. At which stage in the uterine cycle does the secretory phase occur?
     1. Days 1-5
     2. Days 5-14
     3. Days 14-28 ✔
142. Which of the following are functions of luteinizing hormone (LH)?
     1. Formation and maintenance of the corpus luteum ✔
     2. Thinning of the Graafian follicles membrane ✔
     3. Stimulation of follicle development
     4. Stimulation of GnRH production
143. In a normal 28 day menstrual cycle, when would you expect the LH surge to occur?
     1. Days 8-10
     2. Days 11-13 ✔
     3. Days 14-16
     4. Days 17-19
144. Which one of the following is the primary source of progesterone in the later stages of pregnancy?
     1. Fetus
     2. Endometrium
     3. Corpus luteum
     4. Placenta ✔
145. Which hormone is the corpus luteum responsible for producing?
     1. Oestrogen
     2. Progesterone ✔
     3. Follicle-stimulating hormone
     4. Luteinizing hormone
146. Which of the following are effects of increased levels of oestrogen in the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?
     1. Hair thinning
     2. Thickening of cervical mucous
     3. Thinning of cervical mucous ✔
     4. Thickening of the endometrium ✔
147. At 22 weeks gestation where would you expect to find the uterine fundus?
     1. Halfway between umbilicus and xiphisternum
     2. Umbilicus ✔
     3. Xiphisternum
     4. Symphysis pubis
148. Which of the following are causes of postpartum haemorrhage?
     1. Vaginal or vulval lacerations
     2. Uterine atony
     3. Retained placenta
     4. Coagulapathy
     5. All of Above ✔
149. Which of the following are recognised causes of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)?
     1. Diabetes
     2. Pre-eclampsia
     3. Smoking
     4. Hypertension
     5. Alcohol
     6. All of above ✔
150. Which period of gestation does the 3rd trimester represent?
     1. 30-41 weeks
     2. 27-39 weeks
     3. 28-40 weeks
     4. 29-40 weeks ✔

One of the advantages of MCQs is that they can test a large amount of information in a relatively short amount of time. This is especially important in medical education, where there is an overwhelming amount of information that needs to be learned and assessed. MCQs also allow for objective and standardized grading, which is essential for ensuring fairness and consistency in assessment.

However, designing effective MCQs can be a challenging task, and there are several key principles that need to be followed to ensure that these questions are reliable, valid, and useful. One of the most important principles is to ensure that the questions are written in a clear and concise manner, with a stem that accurately reflects the knowledge and skills that are being assessed. The answer options should be well-differentiated and plausible, and the correct answer should be defensible and based on sound clinical reasoning.

Another important principle is to ensure that the MCQs cover a representative sample of the knowledge and skills that are required for the specific exam or assessment. This means that the questions should be designed to test both basic and advanced knowledge, and they should cover a range of topics and clinical scenarios. The questions should also be designed to test different levels of cognitive complexity, from simple recall of facts to higher-order thinking and problem-solving.

There are several different types of MCQs that can be used to assess doctors, each with its own advantages and disadvantages. One common type is the single best answer MCQ, where the stem is followed by several options, only one of which is the correct answer. This type of MCQ is relatively straightforward to write and grade, and it is useful for testing basic knowledge and clinical reasoning.

Another type of MCQ is the extended matching item (EMI), which consists of a list of options that are matched to several stems or clinical scenarios. This type of MCQ is useful for testing a broad range of knowledge and skills, and it can be particularly effective for testing diagnostic reasoning and clinical decision-making.

A third type of MCQ is the key feature question (KFQ), which is designed to test the ability to identify important clinical features and to make appropriate management decisions. This type of MCQ is useful for testing advanced knowledge and clinical reasoning, and it can be particularly effective for testing the ability to integrate multiple pieces of information and to make complex decisions.

Regardless of the type of MCQ used, it is important to ensure that the questions are of high quality and that they accurately reflect the knowledge and skills required for the specific exam or assessment. This requires careful attention to the design and development of the questions, as well as rigorous testing and validation to ensure that they are reliable, valid, and useful.

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Possible References Used

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