Urine Culture Tests and Related Diseases 60 MCQs and 100 FAQs:

Urine Culture 100 FAQs:
How does a urine culture differ from a urinalysis?
A urinalysis checks for physical, chemical, and microscopic changes in urine (e.g., pH, blood, leukocytes). A urine culture specifically identifies bacteria/fungi causing infections and determines antibiotic susceptibility.
Can a urine culture detect viruses causing UTIs?
No. Urine cultures detect bacteria and fungi. Viral UTIs require specialized tests like PCR.
What is asymptomatic bacteriuria, and how is it diagnosed?
Asymptomatic bacteriuria is bacteria in urine without symptoms. Diagnosed via urine culture (>100,000 CFU/mL in two samples). Requires treatment only in pregnant women or before urologic surgery.
Why is a urine culture the gold standard for UTI diagnosis?
It confirms infection by identifying pathogens and quantifying bacterial growth, guiding targeted treatment.
What role does a urine culture play in recurrent UTIs?
It identifies persistent pathogens, assesses antibiotic resistance, and guides long-term management strategies.
Can I collect a urine sample at home for a culture?
Yes, with proper sterile techniques. Transport to the lab within 2 hours or refrigerate (up to 48 hours).
What if I can’t produce a urine sample immediately?
Drink water and wait. If delayed, refrigerate the sample promptly to prevent bacterial overgrowth.
How is a urine sample collected from infants?
A catheter or sterile bag is used. Suprapubic aspiration may be done if contamination is a concern.
Why is first-morning urine preferred?
Higher bacterial concentration due to overnight accumulation, improving detection accuracy.
What happens if the sample is contaminated?
Mixed growth or skin flora (e.g., Staphylococcus epidermidis) may appear. A repeat test is needed.
Can menstrual blood affect results?
Yes. Blood can introduce contaminants. Avoid collection during menstruation.
How much urine is needed?
1–2 ounces (30–60 mL). Smaller volumes may yield insufficient bacteria for detection.
Can a urine bag collection be used?
Not ideal due to contamination risk. Use catheter or midstream samples for accuracy.
What are improper storage consequences?
Overgrowth of contaminants or bacterial death, leading to false results.
How should females clean the genital area?
Wipe front to back with antiseptic wipes to avoid fecal contamination.
What is a quantitative urine culture?
Measures bacterial count (CFU/mL). Critical for distinguishing infection (>100,000 CFU/mL) from contamination.
When is suprapubic aspiration necessary?
For patients unable to provide clean samples, infants, or suspected anaerobic infections.
What is an anaerobic urine culture?
Detects bacteria thriving without oxygen (e.g., Bacteroides). Used for complex or recurring infections.
How does a fungal culture differ?
Uses Sabouraud agar to grow yeast/mold. Incubated longer (up to 7 days) at 30°C.
When is a catheterized culture ordered?
For bedridden patients, those with neurogenic bladders, or when clean-catch isn’t feasible.
What media are used in urine cultures?
MacConkey agar (gram-negative), blood agar (gram-positive), and chromogenic agar for specific pathogens.
How does MacConkey agar help?
Differentiates lactose fermenters (e.g., E. coli) from non-fermenters (e.g., Pseudomonas).
Role of blood agar?
Supports growth of fastidious bacteria and detects hemolysis patterns (e.g., beta-hemolytic Streptococcus).
Incubation duration?
24–48 hours at 35–37°C. Fungal cultures may take longer.
Incubation temperature?
35–37°C (body temperature) to mimic human host conditions.
How are bacterial species identified?
Colony morphology, Gram stain, biochemical tests (e.g., catalase, oxidase), and MALDI-TOF MS.
What is a CFU?
Colony-forming unit: one viable bacterial cell forming a visible colony.
How is the sample inoculated?
A calibrated loop (1 µL) streaks urine onto agar plates. Quantitative cultures calculate CFU/mL.
What if multiple bacteria grow?
Mixed growth suggests contamination or polymicrobial infection. Repeat culture or clinical correlation needed.
How do labs handle mixed growth?
Report dominant species. If pathogens are present, sensitivity testing focuses on them.
What does “10^5 CFU/mL” mean?
100,000 CFU/mL, indicating a confirmed UTI in symptomatic patients.
Can low CFU indicate UTI?
Yes. ≥1,000 CFU/mL with symptoms (e.g., in catheterized patients) may warrant treatment.
Significance of mixed flora?
Likely contamination. Requires repeat testing unless symptoms suggest true infection.
How are sensitivities determined?
Disc diffusion (Kirby-Bauer) or automated systems test antibiotic effectiveness.
What does “intermediate” mean?
The antibiotic may work at higher doses or in specific body sites. Use depends on clinical context.
How to read susceptibility reports?
S (Sensitive): Effective. I (Intermediate): Possibly effective. R (Resistant): Not effective.
Resistance to all antibiotics?
Use broader-spectrum agents (e.g., carbapenems) or consult infectious disease specialists.
Reporting fungal infections?
Identifies species (e.g., Candida) and recommends antifungals (e.g., fluconazole).
Positive culture without symptoms?
Asymptomatic bacteriuria. Treated only in high-risk groups (pregnant women, immunocompromised).
Can it detect STIs?
No. STIs like chlamydia require NAAT/PCR tests. Urine cultures focus on UTIs.
Why is E. coli common in UTIs?
Its adhesins allow urethral colonization. Common in the gut, leading to periurethral contamination.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa characteristics?
Green pigment (pyocyanin), fruity odor, gram-negative rods. Resistant to many antibiotics.
Differentiating Enterococcus?
Gram-positive cocci in chains, catalase-negative, PYR-positive, and grows in bile-esculin agar.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus in young women?
Adheres to uroepithelial cells. Common in sexually active women due to urethral proximity.
Proteus mirabilis in culture?
Swarming motility, urease-positive (causes alkaline urine), and associated with kidney stones.
Klebsiella pneumoniae colonies?
Mucoid, lactose-fermenting on MacConkey agar. Often ESBL-producing, leading to resistance.
Identifying Candida albicans?
White, creamy colonies on chromogenic agar. Germ tube test confirms species.
Risks of Pseudomonas UTIs?
High antibiotic resistance, leading to complicated UTIs or sepsis if untreated.
Streptococcus agalactiae in pregnancy?
Group B Strep can cause neonatal sepsis. Treated with intrapartum antibiotics.
Enterobacteriaceae differentiation?
Biochemical tests (indole, citrate, urease) and MALDI-TOF MS identify species like E. coli vs. Klebsiella.
Disc diffusion method?
Antibiotic-impregnated discs on agar. Zone of inhibition determines susceptibility.
MIC determination?
Lowest antibiotic concentration inhibiting visible growth. Done via broth dilution or E-test strips.
Common antibiotics for E. coli?
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, nitrofurantoin, ciprofloxacin (if susceptible).
Why nitrofurantoin for lower UTIs?
Concentrates in urine, effective against common pathogens, and minimizes systemic resistance.
ESBL significance?
Extended-spectrum beta-lactamases hydrolyze penicillins/cephalosporins. Use carbapenems.
Detecting MRSA in urine?
Rare, but MRSA grows on chromogenic agar. Confirmed via cefoxitin disc testing.
AmpC beta-lactamase?
Confers resistance to cephalosporins. Treated with carbapenems or fourth-generation cephalosporins.
Testing carbapenem resistance?
Modified Hodge test or PCR for carbapenemase genes (e.g., KPC, NDM).
Multi-drug resistant (MDR) UTI options?
Fosfomycin, pivmecillinam, or combination therapy guided by sensitivity.
Updating sensitivity protocols?
Follow CLSI/EUCAST guidelines, revised annually based on resistance trends.
Treatment duration?
Uncomplicated UTI: 3–7 days. Complicated UTI: 7–14 days. Adjust based on culture results.
Follow-up culture timing?
1–2 weeks post-treatment for recurrent/resistant infections to confirm eradication.
Persistent symptoms with negative culture?
Consider interstitial cystitis, STIs, or non-infectious causes (e.g., stones).
Managing recurrent UTIs?
Low-dose antibiotics, vaginal estrogen (postmenopausal), or prophylactic measures (cranberry, hydration).
Prophylaxis guided by culture?
Yes. Select antibiotics based on prior susceptibility to prevent resistance.
Role in pyelonephritis?
Confirms causative organism and guides IV/oral antibiotics (e.g., ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin).
Antibiotic stewardship?
Promotes appropriate antibiotic use to reduce resistance. Cultures prevent unnecessary prescriptions.
Natural remedies for culture-positive UTIs?
Cranberry may prevent adhesion but isn’t a treatment. Always use prescribed antibiotics.
Precautions for resistant UTIs?
Isolate patients (if hospitalized), contact precautions, and strict adherence to sensitivity reports.
Treating fungal UTIs?
Antifungals like fluconazole or amphotericin B. Remove catheters if applicable.
Urine culture in pregnancy?
Routine screening for asymptomatic bacteriuria at 12–16 weeks. Treat to prevent pyelonephritis.
Group B Strep in pregnancy?
Screened at 35–37 weeks. Positive results require intrapartum penicillin to protect the newborn.
UTIs in men?
Less common. Often linked to prostate issues. Cultures guide prolonged antibiotic courses.
Challenges in elderly UTIs?
Atypical symptoms (confusion, falls). Cultures differentiate infection from asymptomatic bacteriuria.
Pediatric urine cultures?
Bag collection (risk of contamination) vs. catheterization. Interpret with symptoms (fever, irritability).
Diabetic patients?
Higher risk for complicated UTIs (e.g., emphysematous cystitis). Cultures guide aggressive treatment.
Immunocompromised patients?
Higher risk for unusual pathogens (e.g., Candida, Mycobacterium). Broad-spectrum coverage initially.
Catheter-associated UTIs (CAUTI)?
Diagnosed via culture (>1,000 CFU/mL + symptoms). Remove catheter if possible.
Spinal cord injury patients?
Neurogenic bladders increase UTI risk. Use cultures to avoid overtreatment of colonization.
Kidney transplant patients?
UTIs can cause graft dysfunction. Use cultures to detect resistant pathogens early.
Can a urine culture miss a UTI?
Yes, if prior antibiotics were used, low bacterial count, or fastidious organisms (e.g., Ureaplasma).
Causes of false negatives?
Antibiotic use, diluted urine, improper storage, or slow-growing pathogens.
Prior antibiotics’ impact?
Suppress bacterial growth, leading to false negatives. Wait 48 hours post-antibiotics before testing.
Pitfalls of mixed growth?
Hard to distinguish pathogens from contaminants. Correlate with symptoms and urinalysis.
Contamination rates?
Up to 30% in improperly collected samples. Proper technique reduces this risk.
Overhydration diluting urine?
Yes. Avoid excessive fluid intake before collection to prevent false negatives.
Symptomatic with negative culture?
Consider viral/fungal infection, interstitial cystitis, or chronic pelvic pain syndrome.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) impact?
Dilute urine and immune dysfunction may alter culture results. Clinical correlation is key.
Inconclusive culture alternatives?
PCR, urinary antigen tests, or imaging (e.g., ultrasound for structural issues).
Lab quality control?
Regular calibration, use of control strains, and adherence to CLSI/EUCAST standards ensure accuracy.
What is a urine culture, and why is it performed?
A urine culture is a laboratory test that detects and identifies bacteria or fungi in a urine sample. It is primarily used to diagnose urinary tract infections (UTIs), determine the causative microorganism, and guide effective antibiotic treatment. It helps confirm infections in symptomatic patients, monitor treatment efficacy, and detect asymptomatic bacteriuria.
How should I prepare for a urine culture test?
No special preparation is required, but follow these steps:
Avoid urinating for 1–2 hours before the test.
Clean the genital area thoroughly to prevent contamination.
Collect a midstream urine sample in a sterile container.
Inform your healthcare provider about recent antibiotics, as they may affect results.What do urine culture results mean?
What do urine culture results mean?
Normal (No growth): No infection detected.
Abnormal:
> 10,000–100,000 CFU/mL: Possible UTI, especially with symptoms.
> >100,000 CFU/mL: High likelihood of infection.
> Mixed growth: May indicate contamination or a complex infection.
> Fungal growth: Suggests a fungal UTI (e.g., Candida).How is a urine sample properly collected?
Use the clean-catch method:
> Wash hands and genital area.
> Begin urinating, then collect midstream urine in a sterile container.
> Avoid touching the container’s interior.
> Transport to the lab within 2 hours or refrigerate (up to 2 days).What if my urine culture shows antibiotic resistance?
Antibiotic resistance means the bacteria are not susceptible to certain drugs. Sensitivity testing identifies effective alternatives (e.g., nitrofurantoin for E. coli). Your provider will prescribe a suitable antibiotic to avoid treatment failure and resistance spread.
Which bacteria commonly cause UTIs?
Common uropathogens include:
> Escherichia coli (most frequent).
> Klebsiella pneumoniae.
> Enterococcus faecalis.
> Pseudomonas aeruginosa (often drug-resistant).
> Staphylococcus saprophyticus (common in young women).What distinguishes a standard urine culture from a catheterized culture?
Standard: Midstream clean-catch sample.
Catheterized: Urine collected via a catheter, used when patients cannot provide a clean sample (e.g., infants or immobilized individuals).
Suprapubic: Direct bladder aspiration via needle for complex cases.How long does a urine culture take?
Results are typically available in 24–48 hours. Incubation at 35–37°C allows bacterial growth. Sensitivity testing may extend the timeframe slightly.
Can a urine culture detect fungal infections?
Yes. A fungal-specific culture identifies yeast (e.g., Candida) or molds. Fungal UTIs are rare but occur in immunocompromised patients or those on long-term antibiotics.
What are the limitations of urine cultures?
> Risk of contamination during collection.
> False negatives if antibiotics were used beforehand.
> Inability to detect non-bacterial pathogens (e.g., viruses).
> Delayed results impacting immediate treatment decisions.
> Cost and variability in interpreting mixed growth.
Urine Culture 60 MCQs:
60 Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) on Urine Culture
- What is the primary purpose of a urine culture?
a) Detect glucose in urine
b) Identify bacteria causing UTIs and guide antibiotic treatment
c) Measure urine pH
d) Diagnose kidney stones
Answer: b - Which term describes bacteria in urine without symptoms?
a) Pyelonephritis
b) Asymptomatic bacteriuria
c) Hematuria
d) Dysuria
Answer: b - Which agar is used to differentiate lactose-fermenting bacteria like E. coli?
a) Blood agar
b) MacConkey agar
c) Sabouraud agar
d) Chocolate agar
Answer: b
- What is the recommended storage time for a urine sample at room temperature?
a) 24 hours
b) 2 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 12 hours
Answer: b - Which urine collection method minimizes contamination?
a) Random sample
b) Midstream clean-catch
c) Catheter bag collection
d) Suprapubic aspiration
Answer: b - First-morning urine is preferred for culture because:
a) It is less concentrated
b) It has higher bacterial counts
c) It is easier to collect
d) It reduces contamination risk
Answer: b
- What CFU/mL threshold typically confirms a UTI in symptomatic patients?
a) 1,000 CFU/mL
b) 10,000 CFU/mL
c) 100,000 CFU/mL
d) 500,000 CFU/mL
Answer: c - Mixed bacterial growth in a urine culture most likely indicates:
a) Severe UTI
b) Contamination
c) Fungal infection
d) Antibiotic resistance
Answer: b - Which result suggests a fungal UTI?
a) E. coli growth
b) Candida albicans colonies
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
Answer: b
- What does “S” mean in antibiotic susceptibility reports?
a) Susceptible
b) Resistant
c) Intermediate
d) Static
Answer: a - Which antibiotic is commonly used for uncomplicated UTIs caused by E. coli?
a) Vancomycin
b) Nitrofurantoin
c) Amphotericin B
d) Metronidazole
Answer: b - ESBL-producing bacteria are resistant to:
a) Penicillins and cephalosporins
b) Nitrofurantoin
c) Fluconazole
d) Aminoglycosides
Answer: a
- Which bacterium causes ~80% of community-acquired UTIs?
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Escherichia coli
d) Enterococcus faecalis
Answer: c - Green pigmentation on culture plates is characteristic of:
a) Candida albicans
b) Proteus mirabilis
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Streptococcus agalactiae
Answer: c - Which pathogen is linked to “honeymoon cystitis” in young women?
a) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) Mycoplasma hominis
d) Enterobacter cloacae
Answer: a
- Asymptomatic bacteriuria requires treatment in:
a) Healthy adults
b) Pregnant women
c) Elderly patients
d) Adolescents
Answer: b - Group B Streptococcus (GBS) in pregnancy is treated to prevent:
a) Maternal pyelonephritis
b) Neonatal sepsis
c) Preterm labor
d) Gestational diabetes
Answer: b - CAUTI (catheter-associated UTI) is diagnosed with:
a) >100,000 CFU/mL in midstream urine
b) >1,000 CFU/mL in catheterized urine
c) Positive urinalysis alone
d) Fungal growth
Answer: b
- The Kirby-Bauer method is used for:
a) Measuring urine pH
b) Antibiotic susceptibility testing
c) Identifying fungal species
d) Counting CFUs
Answer: b - Which test confirms carbapenemase-producing bacteria?
a) Gram staining
b) Modified Hodge test
c) Catalase test
d) Oxidase test
Answer: b
- Which bacterium produces swarming motility on culture plates?
a) Escherichia coli
b) Proteus mirabilis
c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer: b - Urease-positive bacteria like Proteus can lead to:
a) Acidic urine
b) Alkaline urine and struvite stones
c) Hematuria
d) Glucose in urine
Answer: b - Which pathogen is associated with “red currant jelly” sputum and UTIs?
a) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Candida albicans
Answer: b - Germ tube formation is a diagnostic feature of:
a) Aspergillus
b) Candida albicans
c) Cryptococcus
d) Trichomonas vaginalis
Answer: b - Which bacteria are gram-positive cocci in clusters?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Answer: b
- The E-test determines:
a) Zone of inhibition
b) Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
c) Bacterial motility
d) Hemolysis pattern
Answer: b - Carbapenem resistance in Klebsiella is often due to:
a) ESBL production
b) Carbapenemase enzymes (e.g., KPC)
c) Methicillin resistance
d) Vancomycin resistance
Answer: b - Which antibiotic is ineffective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
a) Piperacillin-tazobactam
b) Nitrofurantoin
c) Ceftazidime
d) Meropenem
Answer: b - VRE (Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococcus) is treated with:
a) Linezolid
b) Amoxicillin
c) Ciprofloxacin
d) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Answer: a - The CLSI guidelines are used to standardize:
a) Urine collection techniques
b) Antibiotic susceptibility testing
c) Gram staining
d) Urine pH measurement
Answer: b
- A 25-year-old pregnant woman with asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated to prevent:
a) Preterm labor
b) Pyelonephritis
c) Gestational hypertension
d) Neonatal jaundice
Answer: b - A diabetic patient with foul-smelling urine and gas in the bladder likely has:
a) Candidiasis
b) Emphysematous cystitis
c) Tuberculosis
d) Schistosomiasis
Answer: b - Recurrent UTIs in a postmenopausal woman may be managed with:
a) Long-term ciprofloxacin
b) Vaginal estrogen therapy
c) Increased fluid intake alone
d) NSAIDs
Answer: b - A urine culture showing >100,000 CFU/mL of Candida indicates:
a) Contamination
b) Fungal UTI
c) Bacterial co-infection
d) Asymptomatic colonization
Answer: b - A patient with indwelling catheter and fever should be evaluated for:
a) CAUTI
b) Viral infection
c) Renal calculi
d) Bladder cancer
Answer: a
- Chromogenic agar is used to identify:
a) E. coli
b) MRSA
c) Candida species
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Answer: b - Cetrimide agar selectively grows:
a) Staphylococcus
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Streptococcus
d) Enterococcus
Answer: b - MALDI-TOF MS is a technique used for:
a) Measuring urine osmolality
b) Rapid bacterial identification
c) Detecting antibiotic resistance genes
d) Counting CFUs
Answer: b - The oxidase test helps differentiate:
a) E. coli from Klebsiella
b) Pseudomonas from Enterobacteriaceae
c) Staphylococcus from Streptococcus
d) Candida from Aspergillus
Answer: b - Bile esculin agar is used to identify:
a) E. coli
b) Enterococcus
c) Proteus
d) Pseudomonas
Answer: b
- In infants, urine collection via a sterile bag is often avoided due to:
a) Pain
b) High contamination risk
c) Low urine volume
d) Ethical concerns
Answer: b - UTI symptoms in the elderly may include:
a) Classic dysuria
b) Confusion or falls
c) Hematuria
d) All of the above
Answer: d - Asymptomatic bacteriuria in elderly patients is typically:
a) Treated aggressively
b) Not treated unless symptomatic
c) Managed with antifungals
d) Screened monthly
Answer: b - A febrile infant with a positive urine culture requires:
a) Observation only
b) Immediate antibiotics
c) Renal biopsy
d) Ultrasound of the bladder
Answer: b - Common uropathogen in uncircumcised boys under 1 year:
a) Candida
b) E. coli
c) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
d) Pseudomonas
Answer: b
- XDR (Extensively Drug-Resistant) Pseudomonas refers to resistance to:
a) All antibiotics
b) All but 1–2 antibiotic classes
c) Only penicillins
d) Only carbapenems
Answer: b - The HACEK group is associated with:
a) UTIs
b) Endocarditis
c) Pneumonia
d) Meningitis
Answer: b - Risk factor for Candida UTIs:
a) Young age
b) Long-term antibiotic use
c) High fluid intake
d) Vegetarian diet
Answer: b - Leukocyte esterase positivity in urinalysis suggests:
a) Hematuria
b) Pyuria
c) Glucosuria
d) Proteinuria
Answer: b - A urine culture showing Mycobacterium tuberculosis indicates:
a) Contamination
b) Renal tuberculosis
c) Fungal UTI
d) Viral infection
Answer: b
- First-line treatment for uncomplicated E. coli UTI:
a) Vancomycin
b) Nitrofurantoin
c) Fluconazole
d) Doxycycline
Answer: b - Prophylactic antibiotics for recurrent UTIs are given:
a) Daily for life
b) Post-coital or low-dose nightly
c) Only during symptoms
d) Intravenously
Answer: b - Drug of choice for Pseudomonas aeruginosa UTI:
a) Nitrofurantoin
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Amoxicillin
d) Linezolid
Answer: b - Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is contraindicated in:
a) Pregnant women
b) Patients with sulfa allergy
c) Diabetics
d) Elderly patients
Answer: b - Fosfomycin is used for:
a) Complicated pyelonephritis
b) Uncomplicated cystitis
c) Fungal UTIs
d) Viral UTIs
Answer: b
- A patient with a spinal cord injury and neurogenic bladder is at risk for:
a) Hypotension
b) Autonomic dysreflexia during UTIs
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Liver failure
Answer: b - Ureaplasma urealyticum is detected using:
a) Standard urine culture
b) PCR or specialized media
c) Gram stain
d) Urinalysis
Answer: b - “Honeymoon cystitis” is linked to:
a) Pseudomonas
b) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c) Candida
d) Streptococcus agalactiae
Answer: b - A urine culture with Streptococcus agalactiae in a pregnant woman requires:
a) No treatment
b) Intrapartum penicillin
c) Antifungals
d) Surgery
Answer: b - Emphysematous pyelonephritis is most common in:
a) Children
b) Diabetics
c) Healthy adults
d) Pregnant women
Answer: b
Possible References Used