Chapter 6: Nursing MCQs

Chapter 6: Nursing MCQs for Exams, Interviews and Entry Tests

5000 Plus Nursing MCQs for Exams, Entry Test and Job Interviews. MCQs are an important tool used in nursing education to test the knowledge and understanding of nursing students. These questions can cover a wide range of topics related to nursing practice, such as anatomy and physiology, pharmacology, nursing ethics, nursing theories, and more. MCQs are often used in nursing exams and assessments to evaluate students’ comprehension and ability to apply theoretical concepts to real-world scenarios.

251 to 300 MCQs for Nursing Exams, Interviews and Entry Tests

These questions can cover a wide range of topics related to nursing practice, such as anatomy and physiology, pharmacology, nursing ethics, nursing theories, and more.

251 to 300 MCQs

251. High levels of uric acid in the blood can result in:
     1. An autoimmune response
     2. Sharp needle-like crystals of monosodium urate deposited around the joints ✔
     3. Osteoarthritis
     4. Rheumatoid arthritis
252. The joint which is commonly affected first in gout is the:
     1. Thumb ✔
     2. Elbow
     3. Toe
     4. Knee
253. A client with rheumatoid arthritis may reveal which of the following assessment data?
     1. Heberden’s nodes
     2. Morning stiffness no longer than 30 minutes
     3. Asymmetric joint swelling
     4. Swan neck deformities of the hand ✔
254. Heberden’s nodes are characteristic of:
     1. Osteoarthritis ✔
     2. Osteomyelitis
     3. Rheumatoid arthritis
     4. Conjunctivitis
255. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterised by:
     1. Swan neck deformities
     2. Symmetrical joint swelling ✔
     3. Asymmetrical joint swelling
     4. Heberden’s nodes
256. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis states, ‘the only time I am without pain is when I lie in bed perfectly still’. During the convalescent stage, the nurse should encourage:
     1. Active joint flexion and extension ✔
     2. Continued immobility until pain subsides
     3. Range of motion exercises twice daily
     4. Flexion exercises three times daily
257. What are the advantages of using a pen-like insulin delivery device?
     1. Shorter injection time
     2. Accurate dose delivery ✔
     3. Lower cost with reusable insulin cartridges
     4. Use of smaller gauge needle
258. Insulin is:
     1. A type of fat
     2. A carbohydrate
     3. A hormone ✔
     4. A food source
259. The major complication of diabetes is:
     1. Bone disease
     2. Retinopathy
     3. Cardiovascular disease ✔
     4. Lung disease
260. Kussmaul respirations are associated with:
     1. Diabetic ketoacidosis
     2. Infection
     3. Trauma
     4. None of the above ✔
261. Which of the following is the most common cause of goitre?
     1. Iodine deficiency
     2. Iodine excess
     3. Kwashiorkor ✔
     4. Insulin deficiency
262. Gestational hyperthyroidism refers to:
     1. Hyperthyroidism that occurs on an annual basis
     2. Hyperthyroidism occurring as a result of a road traffic collision
     3. Hyperthyroidism occurring during pregnancy ✔
     4. Hyperthyroidism occurring as a result of the menopause
263. The thyroid gland produces:
     1. Insulin and thyroxine
     2. Thyroxine and parathormone
     3. Parathormone and insulin
     4. Thyroxine and triiodine ✔
264. The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is:
     1. Graves’ disease ✔
     2. A toxic nodular goitre
     3. A solitary toxic thyroid adenoma
     4. Thyroiditis
265. Which of the following is a male characteristic of erectile dysfunction?
     1. Failure to achieve an erection from the outset of sexual activity
     2. Being able to attain an erection but losing tumescence prior to penetration
     3. Losing tumescence during penetration
     4. All of the above ✔
266. Performance anxiety refers to:
     1. Fear of having sex in an unfamiliar place
     2. Fear of criticism of the sexual partner
     3. Fear of failing to achieve a sustained erection ✔
     4. Fear of not having an orgasm
267. Another name for sildenafil is:
     1. Viagra ✔
     2. Cialis
     3. Ventolin
     4. Tolbutamide
268. Sildenafil is in a class of medications called:
     1. Phospholipids
     2. Phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitors ✔
     3. Phosphodiesterase (PDE) exhibitors
     4. All of the above
269. Which of the following is classed as a bacterial STI?
     1. Herpes
     2. Genital warts
     3. Chlamydia ✔
     4. HIV
270. The most common bacterial STI is:
     1. Chlamydia ✔
     2. Gonorrhoea
     3. Syphilis
     4. HIV
271. If left untreated in women, chlamydia can lead to:
     1. Hepatitis
     2. Peripheral vascular disease
     3. Pelvic inflammatory disease ✔
     4. Uterine fibroids
272. Those at higher risk of being infected with chlamydia are:
     1. Men under 25 years
     2. Women under 25 years
     3. Men and women under 25 years ✔
     4. Men who have sex with men
273. Menarche is said to occur when:
     1. The woman’s periods stop
     2. The woman’s periods commence ✔
     3. There is spontaneous heavy bleeding
     4. There are irregular periods
274. Primary dysmenorrhoea usually occurs:
     1. Alongside some form of pelvic abnormality
     2. When the woman has carcinoma of the cervix
     3. In young females who do not have pelvic pathology ✔
     4. In postmenopausal women
275. The treatment of dysmenorrhea aims to:
     1. Provide symptomatic relief
     2. Provide relief in addressing the underlying processes that cause symptoms
     3. Provide symptomatic relief and relief in addressing the underlying processes ✔
     4. None of the above
276. Leukotrienes are:
     1. Another name for white blood cells
     2. Inflammatory mediators ✔
     3. Cancer markers
     4. Red blood cells
277. The most common disorders seen by healthcare professionals are:
     1. Cardiovascular disorders
     2. Cancers
     3. Skin disorders ✔
     4. Sexually transmitted infections
278. Atopic eczema can start as early as:
     1. 4 days of age
     2. 4 weeks of age
     3. 4 months of age ✔
     4. None of the above
279. The term pruritus refers to:
     1. Infection
     2. Vulval pain
     3. A viral condition
     4. Itching ✔
280. There is no cure for eczema so treatment aims to:
     1. Prevent cross-infection
     1. Control or ease symptoms ✔
     2. Prevent dehydration
     3. Encourage tissue regeneration
281. Common sites for psoriasis include:
     1. The palate, nasal septum and knees
     2. Knees, nape of the neck and elbows
     3. Elbows, knees and scalp ✔
     4. Scalp, eyebrows and gluteal cleft
282. Most cases of psoriasis first present before the age of:
     1. 3 years
     2. 13 years
     3. 15 years
     4. 35 years ✔
283. Coal tar preparations have:
     1. A anti-inflammatory effect
     2. An antipruritic and anti-inflammatory effect ✔
     3. An analgesic and antibacterial effect
     4. An analgesic, anti-inflammatory, antipruritic and antibacterial effect
284. Diagnosis of psoriasis is made on:
     1. Blood results
     2. Biopsy
     3. Biopsy and blood results
     4. Clinical findings ✔
285. The most serious type of skin cancer is:
     1. Basal cell carcinoma
     2. Melanoma ✔
     3. Sarcoma
     4. Squamous cell carcinoma
286. The one key risk factor for melanoma is:
     1. Age
     2. Gender
     3. Ethnicity
     4. Ultraviolet light ✔
287. The most common characteristics of melanoma are:
     1. A fast-growing, asymmetrical, raised lesion
     2. A slow-growing, asymmetrical, flat lesion
     3. A slow-growing, symmetrical, flat lesion ✔
     4. A slow-growing, symmetrical, bleeding lesion
288. Dermatoscopy refers to:
     1. The examination of skin lesion with a dermatoscope ✔
     2. The examination and biopsy of a skin lesion
     3. The removal of a skin lesion
     4. The debridement of a skin lesion
289. Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of a client with a cancer of the lung?
     1. Air hunger
     2. Exertional dyspnoea
     3. Cough with night sweats
     4. Persistent changing cough ✔
290. The TNM staging system refers to:
     1. Type, Node and Mode
     2. Tumour, Node and Metastases ✔
     3. Type, Node and Metastases
     4. Tumour, Node and Mode
291. Nearly all lung cancers develop in:
     1. The nasopharynx
     2. The Eustachian tube
     3. The bronchial tissue ✔
     4. The pleura
292. The term cytology refers to:
     1. The study of cells ✔
     2. The study of cancer
     3. The study of sputum
     4. The study of nerves
293. Metastases refer to:
     1. The spread of cancer or disease from one organ or part to another not directly connected with it ✔
     2. The spread of cancer within the diseased organ
     3. A type of chemotherapy
     4. A treatment option
294. Stage 3 cancer of the cervix is:
     1. Cancer cells within the cervix only
     2. Cancer that has spread to the vagina only
     3. Cancer that has spread to areas such as the lower aspect of the vagina or tissues to the sides of the pelvic area ✔
     4. None of the above
295. The HPV vaccine is offered routinely to:
     1. Girls and boys aged 12–13 years
     2. Girls aged 12–13 years ✔
     3. Boys aged 12–13 years
     4. Children under 10 years
296. Colposcopy is an instrument used to:
     1. Visualise the fallopian tubes
     2. Remove genital warts
     3. Visualise the surface of the cervix ✔
     4. Visualise the uterus
297. The greatest risk for prostate cancer is:
     1. Ethnicity
     2. Lifestyle
     3. Age ✔
     4. Social status
298. PSA is:
     1. A protein produced by the prostate gland ✔
     2. A vitamin produced by the prostate gland
     3. A toxin produced by the prostate gland
     4. A type of test to determine the size of the prostate gland
299. Mutations in BRCA2:
     1. Act as protective genes in reducing the risk of developing prostate cancer
     2. Are irrelevant in prostate cancer
     3. Increase the risk of developing prostate cancer ✔
     4. Cause the prostate gland to shrink
300. The Gleason score:
     1. Predicates the likelihood of a man developing metastases
     2. Is a measure used to assess the amount of PSA in the blood
     3. Helps to evaluate the prognosis of men with prostate cancer
     4. Is used to assess pain ✔

The importance of MCQs in nursing education cannot be overstated. Nursing is a demanding and complex field that requires a high level of knowledge and skill. Nurses are responsible for the care of patients, and they must be able to make informed decisions quickly and effectively. MCQs help to ensure that nursing students are adequately prepared for the challenges they will face in their careers by testing their knowledge of the key concepts and principles that underpin nursing practice.

One of the primary benefits of MCQs is that they provide a standardized way of assessing nursing students’ knowledge. Unlike open-ended questions or essay questions, which can be subjective and difficult to grade consistently, MCQs are designed to be objective and straightforward. Each question has a clear right or wrong answer, which makes it easier for instructors to evaluate students’ performance and compare their results to those of their peers.

Another advantage of MCQs is that they can be used to test a broad range of knowledge and skills. Nursing MCQs can cover a variety of topics, from basic anatomy and physiology to complex pharmacology and nursing interventions. This allows instructors to evaluate students’ understanding of the full spectrum of nursing practice and identify areas where they may need additional support or instruction.

MCQs can also be used to assess different levels of learning. For example, some questions may test students’ recall of basic facts and concepts, while others may require them to apply their knowledge to solve a problem or make a clinical judgment. By using a mix of different types of questions, instructors can get a more comprehensive picture of each student’s strengths and weaknesses and tailor their instruction accordingly.

There are some potential drawbacks to using MCQs in nursing education, however. One concern is that MCQs may not accurately reflect the complexity of nursing practice. Nursing is a field that requires a high degree of critical thinking, problem-solving, and clinical judgment, and MCQs may not fully capture these skills. Additionally, some nursing students may struggle with multiple-choice questions, particularly if they have learning disabilities or other challenges that affect their ability to process information quickly.

Despite these concerns, however, MCQs remain an important tool in nursing education. They provide a standardized and objective way of assessing nursing students’ knowledge, and they can cover a broad range of topics and levels of learning. With careful design and implementation, MCQs can be an effective way to evaluate nursing students’ performance and ensure that they are adequately prepared for the challenges they will face in their careers.

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