Chapter 50 – MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists

5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.

2451 to 2500 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation

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Questions 2451 to 2500

2451. In algae, advanced type of sexual reproduction is
      1. Isogamy
      2. Anisogamy
      3. Oogamy ✔
      4. None of these
2452. Alginic acids and its salts are obtained from the wall of
      1. Red algae
      2. Brown algae ✔
      3. Green algae
      4. Red and brown algae
2453. The molds obtained nutrition from dead and decaying matter which are called
      1. Saphrophytes ✔
      2. Parasites
      3. Commensals
      4. None of these
2454. Most molds are capable of growing in the temperature range between
      1. 0o – 25oC
      2. 0o – 35oC ✔
      3. 10o – 25oC
      4. 10o – 35oC
2455. Examples for actinomycetes
      1. Streptomyces
      2. Spirillospora
      3. Frankia
      4. Dermatophillia ✔
      5. All of the above
2456. Pellicle is found in only
      1. Algae
      2. Fungi ✔
      3. Bacteria
      4. Protozoans
2457. The Largest virus is
      1. Parvo virus
      2. Pox virus ✔
      3. Rhabdo virus
      4. None of these
2458. The smallest virus is
      1. Parvo virus
      2. Rhabdo virus ✔
      3. Pox virus
      4. Adeno virus
2459. The extra cellular infections virus particle is called
      1. Capsid
      2. Nucleocapsid
      3. Virion ✔
      4. None of these
2460. Shape of bacteriophage is
      1. Brick shape
      2. Bullet shape
      3. Helical shape
      4. Tadpole shape ✔
2461. If only one stain is used for staining a specimen
      1. Simple staining ✔
      2. Negative staining
      3. Differential staining
      4. None of these
2462. Other than the sample (specimen) the remaining portion is stained then it is called
      1. Simple staining
      2. Negative staining ✔
      3. Differential staining
      4. None of these
2463. If more than one stain is used, such staining is called
      1. Simple staining
      2. Negative staining
      3. Differential staining ✔
      4. None of these
2464. ‘Fluorescence’ was first observed by
      1. Kohler ✔
      2. Coons
      3. Both a and b
      4. None of these
2465. By using fluorescence property fluorescent antibody technique was developed by
      1. Kohler
      2. Coons ✔
      3. Both and b
      4. None of these
2466. During staining for Electron Microscopy, the method which improves contrast of specimen is
      1. Positive staining
      2. Negative staining ✔
      3. Shadow staining
      4. None of these
2467. The inorganic forms of nitrogen, which are accepted by bacteria are
      1. Nitrates
      2. Nitrites
      3. Ammonium salts
      4. All of these ✔
2468. Archaeo bacteria are known as
      1. Halophiles
      2. Red extreme halophiles ✔
      3. Osmophiles
      4. Extreme thermophiles
2469. Nitrite is converted into nitrate by the bacteria
      1. Nitrosomonas
      2. Nitrosocytes
      3. Nitrobacter ✔
      4. Azatobacter
2470. Sulphur oxidizing bacteria is
      1. Alcaligenes
      2. Pseudomonas
      3. Thiobacillus ✔
      4. None of these
2471. Bacillus Schlegelli is
      1. Hydrogen – Oxydising bacteria ✔
      2. Sulphur – Oxydising bacteria
      3. Iron-Oxidising bacteria
      4. Nitrite oxidizing bacteria
2472. The group of bacteria which deopends on organic sources in nature for their energy requirements. They are said to be
      1. Chemotrophs
      2. Phototrophs
      3. Heterotrophes ✔
      4. Organotrophs
2473. Majority of bacteria are
      1. Saprophytes
      2. Symbionts
      3. Commensals
      4. Parasites ✔
2474. Symbionts are
      1. Bacteria in symbiotc association
      2. The group of fungi in symbiotic association
      3. The groups participating in symbiotic association ✔
      4. All of these
2475. The best example for symbiotic association is
      1. E.coli in intestine of man
      2. Lichens ✔
      3. Normal floraof skin
      4. All of the above

2476. The enzymes responsible for decomposition is
      1. Lipolytic
      2. Proteolytic ✔
      3. Lysozyme
      4. Both a and b
2477. Urea is decomposed by the species
      1. Micrococcus sps.
      2. Nitrosomonas sps.
      3. Proteus sps.
      4. Both a and c ✔
2478. Phycobiont is
      1. The algal part in Lichens ✔
      2. The fungal part in Lichens
      3. Laustoria formation
      4. None of these
2479. Parasitic form must contain
      1. Capsules ✔
      2. Cell-wall
      3. Endospores
      4. Flagella
2480. The total no. of genes in the group of same individuals is
      1. Genome
      2. Gene map
      3. Gene pool ✔
      4. None of these
2481. Transformation was observed mainly in
      1. Bacteriophages
      2. Temperate phages ✔
      3. ? –phage
      4. All of these
2482. Capsulated forms of bacteria are
      1. Virulent
      2. A virulent
      3. Useful ✔
      4. Symbiotic
2483. The bacterial cells participating in conjugation are
      1. Conjugants ✔
      2. Fertile cells
      3. Exconjugants
      4. None of these
2484. Phagocytes are
      1. Monocytes
      2. Macrophages
      3. Basophils
      4. All of these ✔
2485. The microorganism engulfed by phagocyte resides in a vacuole is known as
      1. Phagosome ✔
      2. Lysosome
      3. both a and b
      4. None of these
2486. Toxic products in phagolysosome are
      1. H2 SO4
      2. Singlet O2
      3. Superoxide radicals
      4. All of these ✔
2487. During destruction of antigen particle in phagolysosome the product formed in phagolysosome the product formed during formulation is
      1. Acetic acid
      2. Lactic acid ✔
      3. Citric acid
      4. None of these
2488. The coating of a bacterium with antibody or complement that leads to enhanced phagocytosis of the bacterium by phagocytes is called
      1. Opsonisation ✔
      2. Aggulation
      3. CFT
      4. None of these
2489. Attenuation means
      1. Killing of the bacteria (microorganism)
      2. Inactivation of bacteria ✔
      3. More activating the bacteria
      4. Both 1 and 2
2490. Infection that results in pus formation are called
      1. Focal infection
      2. Acute infection
      3. Pyogenic infection ✔
      4. Chronic infection
2491. Presence of viable bacteria in the blood stream is called
      1. Viraemia
      2. Septicaemia
      3. Bacteraemia ✔
      4. Bactericidal
2492. Presence of viruses in the blood stream is known as
      1. Viraemia ✔
      2. Bacteraemia
      3. Septicaemia
      4. Pyemia
2493. Opsonin is the
      1. Cellwall component
      2. Plasma component
      3. Serum component ✔
      4. Cytoplasm component
2494. ßßß-haemolytic bacteria is
      1. Streptococcus pyogenes ✔
      2. Str. pneumoniae
      3. Str. viridans
      4. Str. faecalis
2495. The natural reservoir of infection for cholera is
      1. Flies
      2. Horse
      3. Man ✔
      4. None of these
2496. Main cause for Cholera is
      1. Poverty and insanitation ✔
      2. Mosquitoes
      3. Toxin produced by pesticides
      4. None of these
2497. Vibrio cholera differs from vibrio eltor by
      1. It shares some Inaba, Ogawa subtypes with eltor
      2. Resistant to polymuxin
      3. Eltor is non-motile
      4. Causes less subclinical infections as compared to eltor ✔
2498. Cholera vaccine gives protection for
      1. 1 – 3 months
      2. 3 – 6 months ✔
      3. 6 – 9 months
      4. 9-12 months
2499. Prophylaxis of cholera is
      1. Protected water supply
      2. Environmental sanitation
      3. Immunisation with killed vaccines
      4. All of these ✔
2500. Sh.dysenteriae is also known as
      1. Sh.shiga
      2. Sh.schmitzi
      3. Both a and b ✔
      4. Sh.para dysenteriae

The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.

To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.

Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.

Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.

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