Chapter 37 – MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists

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5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.

1801 to 1850 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation

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Questions 1801 to 1850

Go to Mock Test Chapter 37

Each of the following statements concerning Q fever is correct EXCEPT:
1. Rash is a prominent feature. ✔
2. Farm animals are an important reservoir.
3. It is transmitted by respiratory aerosol.
4. It is caused by Coxiella burnetii.
Each of the following statements concerning sleeping sickness is correct EXCEPT:
1. Sleeping sickness is caused by a trypanosome.
2. Sleeping sickness occurs primarily in tropical Africa.
3. Sleeping sickness can be diagnosed by finding eggs in the stool. ✔
4. Sleeping sickness is transmitted by tsetse flies.
Trophozoites, Schizonts and gametocytes of all the malarial parasites are seen in the peripheral blood smear except ;
1. P. falciparum ✔
2. P. malariae
3. P. vivax
4. P. ovale
Which one of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells?
1. Rickettsia rickettsii ✔
2. Haemophilus influenzae
3. Salmonella typhi
4. Coxiella burnetii
Regarding the effect of benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) on bacteria, which one of the following organisms is LEAST likely to be resistant?
1. Enterococcus faecalis
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Streptococcus pyogenes ✔
4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Each of the following statements concerning penicillin is correct EXCEPT:
1. Penicillin inhibits transpeptidases, which are required for cross-linking peptidoglycan.
2. The structure of penicillin resembles that of a dipeptide of alanine, which is a component of peptidoglycan.
3. Penicillin is a bacteriostatic drug because autolytic enzymes are not activated. ✔
4. An intact ß-lactam ring of penicillin is required for its activity.
Each of the following statements concerning the mechanism of action of antimicrobial drugs is correct EXCEPT:
1. Vancomycin acts by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis.
2. Quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, act by inhibiting the DNA gyrase of bacteria.
3. Aminoglycosides such as streptomycin are bactericidal drugs that inhibit protein synthesis.
4. Erythromycin is a bactericidal drug that disrupts cell membranes by a detergent-like action. ✔
Each of the following statements concerning the resistance of bacteria to antimicrobial drugs is correct EXCEPT:
1. Resistance to chloramphenicol is known to be due to an enzyme that acetylates the drug.
2. Resistance to penicillin is known to be due to cleavage by ß-lactamase.
3. Resistance to tetracycline is known to be due to an enzyme that hydrolyzes the ester linkage. ✔
4. Resistance to penicillin is known to be due to reduced affinity of transpeptidases.
The use of antibiotics that inhibit or inactivate cellular ribosomes will result directly in the loss of which of the following functions:
1. ATP production
2. Cell division
3. Protein synthesis ✔
4. DNA replication
Each of the following statements concerning the mechanism of action of antibacterial drugs is correct EXCEPT:
1. Cephalosporins are bactericidal drugs that inhibit the transpeptidase reaction and prevent cell wall synthesis.
2. Erythromycin is a bacteriostatic drug that inhibits protein synthesis by blocking translocation of the polypeptide.
3. Aminoglycosides are bacteriostatic drugs that inhibit protein synthesis by activating ribonuclease, which degrades mRNA. ✔
4. Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic drugs that inhibit protein synthesis by blocking tRNA binding.

Each of the following statements concerning the mechanisms of resistance to antimicrobial drugs is correct EXCEPT:
1. Resistance to some drugs is due to a chromosomal mutation that alters the receptor for the drug.
2. R factors are plasmids that carry the genes for enzymes that modify one or more drugs.
3. Resistance to some drugs is due to transposon genes that code for enzymes that inactivate the drugs.
4. Resistance genes are rarely transferred by conjugation. ✔
Regarding viroids, which one of the following statements is the MOST accurate?
1. They cause tumors in experimental animals.
2. They consist of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat. ✔
3. They are defective viruses that are missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein.
4. They require an RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.
Reasonable mechanisms for viral persistence in infected individuals include all of the following EXCEPT:
1. Generation of defective-interfering particles
2. Virus-mediated inhibition of host DNA synthesis ✔
3. Host tolerance to viral antigens
4. Integration of a provirus into the genome of the host
A 5-year-old presents to the pediatrician with complaints of a sore throat. Her mother also noticed that both of her eyes were slightly red. Examination reveals rhinopharyngitis with bilateral conjunctivitis. What activity likely led to the above illness?
1. Eating undercooked shellfish
2. Hiking in a heavily wooded area
3. Traveling to a developing country
4. Playing with toys in a day care center
5. Swimming in a community pool ✔
Regarding the serologic diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis, which one of the following is CORRECT?
1. A heterophil antibody is formed that reacts with a capsid protein of Epstein–Barr virus.
2. A heterophil antigen occurs following infection with cytomegalovirus.
3. A heterophil antibody is formed that agglutinates sheep or horse red blood cells. ✔
4. A heterophil antigen occurs that cross-reacts with Proteus OX19 strains.
What is the primary means of spread for measles?
1. Animal bite
2. Respiratory droplet spread ✔
3. Fomite spread
4. Tick bite
5. Fecal-oral
An 11 -month-old infant was brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing and wheezing. History and physical examination reveal a slight fever, cough, and rhinorrhea that began about 2 days before. Analysis of the sputum reveals normal flora with the presence of giant multinucleated cells. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
1. Measles
2. B 19
3. Respiratory syncytial virus ✔
4. Parainfluenza
5. Influenza
Each of the following statements concerning retroviruses is correct EXCEPT:
1. During infection, the virus synthesizes a DNA copy of its RNA, and this DNA becomes covalently integrated into host cell DNA.
2. The virion is enveloped and enters cells via an interaction with specific receptors on the host cell.
3. The viral genome consists of three segments of double-stranded RNA. ✔
4. The virion carries an RNA-directed DNA polymerase encoded by the viral genome.
Viruses enter cells by adsorbing to specific sites on the outer membrane of cells. Each of the following statements regarding this event is correct EXCEPT:
1. If the sites are occupied, interference with virus infection occurs.
2. The interaction can be prevented by neutralizing antibody.
3. The interaction determines the specific target organs for infection.
4. The interaction determines whether the purified genome of a virus is infectious. ✔
Which one of the following statements about virion structure and assembly is CORRECT?
1. The symmetry of virus particles prevents inclusion of any nonstructural proteins, such as enzymes.
2. Helical nucleocapsids are found primarily in DNA viruses.
3. Most viruses acquire surface glycoproteins by budding through the nuclear membrane.
4. Enveloped viruses use a matrix protein to mediate interactions between viral glycoproteins in the plasma membrane and structural proteins in the nucleocapsid. ✔
Each of the following statements concerning viruses is correct EXCEPT:
1. The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of the virus into host cells.
2. Viruses replicate by binary fission. ✔
3. Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the surface of the virus.
4. Viruses can reproduce only within cells.
In the U.S., a baby has the greatest chance of acquiring which virus in utero?
1. Respiratory syncytial virus
2. Rubella virus
3. Hepatitis B virus
4. Cytomegalovirus ✔
5. Herpes simplex virus
Each of the following statements about both measles virus and rubella virus is correct EXCEPT:
1. They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol.
2. Their virions contain an RNA polymerase. ✔
3. They have a single antigenic type.
4. They are RNA enveloped viruses.
A 5-year-old girl presents with a fever and a generalized macular rash that is most dense on the scalp and trunk of the body. Several waves of lesions appear, one after another, and evolve rapidly into vesicles and then pustules over several days. The most likely disease and causal agent is
1. Whitlow infection due to herpes simplex virus type 1
2. Infectious mononucleosis due to the Epstein-Barr virus
3. Exanthem subitum due to cytomegalovirus
4. Chickenpox due to the varicella-zoster virus ✔
5. Herpetic gingivostomatitis due to the varicella-zoster virus
Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in influenza viruses is correct?
1. It results in major antigenic changes
2. It is exhibited by only influenza A viruses
3. It is due to frame shift mutations in viral genes
4. It affects predominantly the matrix protein
5. It results in new sub types over time ✔
Which one of the following viruses possesses a genome of single-stranded RNA that is infectious when purified?
1. Influenza virus
2. Measles virus
3. Rotavirus
4. Poliovirus ✔
Which one of the following statements about genital herpes is LEAST accurate?
1. Acyclovir reduces the number of recurrent disease episodes by eradicating latently infected cells. ✔
2. Initial disease episodes are generally more severe than recurrent episodes.
3. Multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions are found in the lesions.
4. Genital herpes can be transmitted in the absence of apparent lesions.
Each of the following statements concerning the antigenicity of influenza A virus is correct EXCEPT:
1. The protein involved in antigenic drift is primarily the internal ribonucleoprotein. ✔
2. Antigenic shifts, which represent major changes in antigenicity, occur infrequently and are due to the reassortment of segments of the viral genome.
3. Antigenic shifts affect both the hemagglutinin and the neuraminidase.
4. The worldwide epidemics caused by influenza A virus are due to antigenic shifts.
5. Many viruses mature by budding through the outer membrane of the host cell.
Each of the following statements regarding these viruses is correct EXCEPT:
1. Some new viral antigens appear on the surface of the host cell.
2. Some of these viruses contain host cell lipids.
3. Some of these viruses cause multinucleated giant cell formation.
4. Some of these viruses do not have an envelope. ✔
Each of the following viruses possesses double-stranded nucleic acid as its genome EXCEPT:
1. Adenovirus
2. Coxsackie virus ✔
3. Rotavirus
4. Herpes simplex virus

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. Each of the following statements concerning this fact is correct EXCEPT:
1. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside of cells.
2. Viruses cannot generate energy outside of cells.
3. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides. ✔
4. Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes.
Each of the following statements concerning Coccidioides immitis is correct EXCEPT:
1. In the body, spherules containing endospores are formed.
2. A rising titer of complement-fixing antibody indicates disseminated disease.
3. The mycelial phase of the organism grows primarily in the soil, which is its natural habitat.
4. Most infections are symptomatic and require treatment with amphotericin B. ✔
Each of the following statements concerning Histoplasma capsulatum is correct EXCEPT:
1. The natural habitat of H. capsulatum is the soil, where it grows as a mold.
2. Within the body, H. capsulatum grows primarily intracellularly within macrophages.
3. Passive immunity in the form of high titer antibodies should be given to those known to be exposed. ✔
4. H. capsulatum is transmitted by airborne conidia, and its initial site of infection is the lung.
An obese 32-year-old diabetic woman presents with complaint of red and painful skin in her abdominal skin folds. Examination reveals a creamy white material at the base of the fold. It is erythematous underneath and extends beyond the creamy material. Microscopic examination of the exudate reveals oval budding structures (3 X 6 µm) mixed with more budding elongated forms. The most likely causal agent is
1. Epidermophyton floccosum
2. Microsporum canis
3. Aspergillus fumigatus
4. Candida albicans ✔
5. Sporothrix schenckii
A 33-year-old HIV-positive man complains of headache and blurred vision. Physical examination reveals papilledema and ataxia. A head CT scan is normal, but CSF obtained by lumbar puncture reveals encapsulated organisms visible by India ink. Which of the following is true concerning this organism?
1. It is an encapsulated non dimorphic yeast found worldwide ✔
2. It exists as a mycelial form at room temperature and a yeast at 37°C
3. It can also be seen as “spaghetti and meatballs” on KOH stain
4. It is a nonencapsulated dimorphic yeast that reproduces by budding
5. It consists of branching septate hyphae
Each of the following statements concerning fungi and protozoa is correct EXCEPT:
1. Both fungi and protozoa generate energy in mitochondria.
2. Fungi possess a cell wall, whereas protozoa do not.
3. Both fungi and protozoa use flagella as their organ of motility. ✔
4. Both fungi and protozoa are eukaryotic organisms.
Fungal cells that reproduce by budding are seen in the infected tissues of patients with:
1. Mycetoma, candidiasis, and mucormycosis
2. Sporotrichosis, mycetoma, and aspergillosis
3. Tinea corporis, tinea unguium, and tinea versicolor
4. Candidiasis, cryptococcosis, and sporotrichosis ✔
An 18-year-old high school student in rural north Mississippi develops fever, cough, and chest pain. The cough, associated with weight loss, persisted. Because of poor performance at football practice, he was advised to see a physician. Lymph node biopsies stained with H and E reveal granulomatous inflammation and macrophages engorged with oval structures measuring 2-4 µm. Cultures incubated at room temperature grow powdery white colonies, which on microscopic study have tuberculate spores. The high school student most likely acquired the infection from which of the following?
1. Contaminated drinking water
2. Cat feces
3. Soil enriched with bird excrement ✔
4. Another human via respiratory secretions
5. Desert sand
Each of the following statements concerning Blastomyces dermatitidis is correct EXCEPT:
1. B. dermatitidis causes granulomatous skin lesions.
2. B. dermatitidis infection is commonly diagnosed by serologic tests because it does not grow in culture. ✔
3. B. dermatitidis grows as a mold in the soil in North America.
4. B. dermatitidis is a dimorphic fungus that forms yeast cells in tissue.
A 42-year-old man who has AIDS presents to his physician with progressively increasing dyspnea over the past 3 weeks. He also complains of a dry, painful cough, fatigue, and low-grade fever. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral symmetrical interstitial and alveolar infiltration. Which of the following agents is the most likely cause of the above?
1. Histoplasma capsulatum
2. Cryptococcus neoformans
3. Pneumocystis jiroveci ✔
4. Cryptosporidium parvum
5. Toxoplasma gondii
Fungi often colonize lesions due to other causes. Which one of the following is LEAST likely to be present as a colonizer?
1. Aspergillus
2. Sporothrix ✔
3. Candida
4. Mucor
When immune complexes from the serum are deposited on glomerular basement membrane, damage to the membrane is caused mainly by:
1. Gamma interferon
2. Enzymes released by polymorphonuclear cells ✔
3. Phagocytosis
4. Cytotoxic T cells
Toxoplasma gondii is an intracellular parasite that lives inside phagocytic and nonphagocytic cells by generating its own intracellular vesicle. This may allow it to avoid recognition and killing by CDS+ lymphocytes, which require the presentation of foreign peptides transported into the endoplasmic reticulum and loaded onto MHC molecules that have
1. a beta2 domain instead of a beta 2 microglobulin
2. a single transmembrane domain ✔
3. invariant chains
4. two similar chains
5. a peptide-binding groove
Each of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is correct EXCEPT:
1. They are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages.
2. They are found on the surface of both B and T cells. ✔
3. They have a high degree of polymorphism.
4. They have a binding site for CD4 proteins.
Macrophages are major source of:
1. IL-5
2. IFN?
3. IL-1 ✔
4. IL-7
A patient skin-tested with purified protein derivative (PPD) to determine previous exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis develops induration at the skin test site 48 hours later. Histologically, the reaction site would MOST probably show:
1. Eosinophils
2. Neutrophils
3. Helper T cells and macrophages ✔
4. B cells
Each of the following statements concerning immunologic tolerance is correct EXCEPT:
1. Tolerance is more easily induced in T cells than in B cells.
2. Tolerance is not antigen-specific (i.e., paralysis of the immune cellsresults in a failure to produce a response against many antigens). ✔
3. Tolerance is more easily induced by simple molecules than by complex ones.
4. Tolerance is more easily induced in neonates than in adults.
Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells?
1. Interleukin-2
2. Interleukin-4
3. Gamma interferon
4. Alpha interferon ✔
Cytotoxic T cells induced by infection with virus A will kill target cells:
1. Infected by virus A and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells ✔
2. From the same host infected with any virus
3. Infected with a different virus and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells
4. Infected with a different virus and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells
5. Infected by virus A and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells
Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their surfaces?
1. Class I MHC antigens
2. Class II MHC antigens ✔
3. Gamma interferon
4. IgE

Go to Mock Test Chapter 37

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The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.

To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.

Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.

Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.

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