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5000 Plus MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists are designed to test the knowledge and proficiency of laboratory professionals who work in the field of clinical laboratory science. These questions cover a wide range of topics related to laboratory science, including anatomy, physiology, microbiology, chemistry, and hematology.

MCQs for Lab Technician

1251 to 1300 MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologist Exam Preparation

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Questions 1251 to 1300

Go to Mock Test Chapter 26
  1. What kind of virus contribute to the development of cancer?
    1. Adrenovirus 
    2. Oncovirus ✔
    3. Papillomavirus 
    4. Spongiovirus
  2. What is the degree to which a virus causes diseases called in medical laboratory technology?
    1. Viral pathogenesis
    2. Viral evolution
    3. Virulence
    4. Viral strength ✔
  3. What type of immunity is mounted against viruses?
    1. Cell-mediated immunity ✔
    2. Innate immunity
    3. Second line immunity
    4. General immunity
  4. Which of these is regulated through medical laboratory technology?
    1. PH buffer 
    2. Temperature 
    3. Steatosis ✔
    4. Osmotic pressure
  5. What kind of virus is associated with cervical cancer?
    1. HIV
    2. Human papillomavirus  ✔
    3. Influenza A Virus 
    4. Polio virus
  6. What kind of viruses infect bacteria?
    1. Adenovirus
    2. Bacteriophages  ✔
    3. Interferon 
    4. Eukaryotes 
  7. What part of the body is attacked by the Hepatitis B virus?
    1. Bone marrow
    2. Lungs
    3. Liver  ✔
    4. Brain
  8. The renal medulla is composed of tissue called _________.
    1. Renal pyramids ✔
    2. Nephrons
    3. Macula densa
    4. Renal pelvis
  9. Which is found in the highest concentration in the urine?
    1. Uric acid
    2. Urea ✔
    3. Glucose
    4. Creatinine
  10. Juxtaglomerular cells combine with ________ cells to form the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the kidney.
    1. Macula densa ✔
    2. Renal pelvis
    3. Nephron
    4. Bowman’s capsule

  1. Which of the folllowing match the definition of “poor output of urine”?
    1. Oliguria ✔
    2. Pyruia
    3. Albuminuria
    4. Diuresis
  2. Capillary loops located in the medulla of the kidneys are also known as ___________.
    1. Vasa recta ✔
    2. Urea collectors
    3. Capillary tuft
    4. Trigone
  3. A function of the descending loop of Henle is the___________.
    1. Re-absorption of sodium ions
    2. Re-absorption of water by osmosis ✔
    3. Secretion of hydrogen ions
    4. Secretion of potassium ions
  4. When glucose is found in the urine it is called _______.
    1. Glucosuria ✔
    2. Uremia
    3. Glucose intolerance
    4. Ureteritis
  5. ADH has which of the following effects on the distal convoluted tubule?
    1. Decrease water re-absorption
    2. Increase water re-absorption ✔
    3. Decrease urine concentration
    4. Increase urine volume
  6. Each kidney contains approximately _______ nephrons.
    1. 10 million
    2. 1 million ✔
    3. 100,000
    4. 10,000
  7. Which is not a funtion of the kidney?
    1. Conjugation of bile ✔
    2. Excretion of water
    3. Conservation of water
    4. Excretion of wastes
  8. The function(s) of the kidney in regard to the blood is ______.
    1. To maintain fluid volume
    2. To maintain solute concentration
    3. To eliminate waste
    4. All of the above ✔
  9. The basic functional unit of the kidney is the _____.
    1. Nephron ✔
    2. Collecting tubule
    3. Loop of Henle
    4. Meatus
  10. During tubular re-absorption tje movement of a solute attached to a carrier protein _________.
    1. Is called passive transport
    2. Requires little or no energy
    3. Is called active transport ✔
    4. Only occurs in the glomerulus
  11. Bowman’s capsule and both convoluted tubules are located in the _____.
    1. Cortex ✔
    2. Renal calyx
    3. Medulla
    4. Renal pelvis
  12. The Loop of Henle and the collecting tubules are located in the ______.
    1. Cortex
    2. Medulla ✔
    3. Renal pelvis
    4. Renal calyx
  13. The structures which transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder are _____.
    1. Ureters ✔
    2. Renal veins
    3. Urethras
    4. Renal calyx
  14. Blood enters the glomerulus through the _____.
    1. Afferent arteriole ✔
    2. Aorta
    3. Efferent arteriole
    4. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
  15. The glomerular filtrate rate is _____.
    1. 125 ml/min ✔
    2. 1250 ml/min
    3. 1,000,000 ml/min
    4. 12 ml/min
  16. Reabsorption is the ______.
    1. Elimination of wastes through the meatus
    2. Taking back of needed substances from the tubules into the body ✔
    3. Elimination of wastes from capillaries into the lumen
    4. Elimination of large molecular weight proteins through the efferent arterioles
  17. The plasma concentration of a substance at which active transport stops and increased amounts are excreted in the urine is called the_______
    1. Renal threshold ✔
    2. Maximal reabsorptive capacity
    3. Renal concentration
    4. Osmotic gradient
  18. The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of 1.010
    1. True ✔
    2. False
  19. The hormone aldosterone is responsible for sodium retention.
    1. True ✔
    2. False
  20. The normal serum osmolarity is 50 – 100 mOsm.
    1. True
    2. False ✔

  1. Disposable containers with a capacity of 25 ml or less are recommended for the collection of specimens for routine urinalysis.
    1. True
    2. False ✔
  2. A properly labelled urine specimen for routine urinalysis delivered to the lab in a gray top blood collection tube can be tested.
    1. True
    2. False ✔
  3. If an arterial blood sample had a bicarbonate of 25 mmol/L and a pCO2 of 58 mmHg, which of the following conditions most likely exists in this patient?
    1. Metabolic acidosis
    2. Metabolic alkalosis
    3. Respiratory acidosis ✔
    4. Respiratory alkalosis
    5. There is no way of telling
  4. The selective membrane of the potassium ISE is most commonly composed of:
    1. Potassium selective membrane
    2. Silver chloride
    3. Valincomycin ✔
  5. A patient being evaluated for diabetes mellitus is given a two-hour OGTT. The patient is diagnosed as having severe diabetes if the serum glucose:
    1. Elevates after 60 minutes and then returns to normal
    2. Elevates 60-120 minutes after ingestion and remains elevated ✔
    3. Does not elevate after 120 minutes
  6. Hypersplenism is characterized by:
    1. Polycythemia
    2. Pancytosis
    3. Leukopenia ✔
    4. Myelodysplasia
  7. Which of the following organs is reponsible for the “pitting process” for RBC’s?
    1. Liver
    2. Spleen ✔
    3. Kidney
    4. Lymph nodes
  8. Spherocytes differ from normal red cells in all of the following except:
    1. Decreased surface to volume
    2. No central pallor
    3. Decreased resistance to hypotonic saline
    4. Increase deformability ✔
  9. Which of the following is not associated with hereditary spherocytosis?
    1. Increased osmotic fragility
    2. An MCHC greater than 36%
    3. Intravascular hemolysis ✔
    4. Extravascular hemolysis
  10. Which of the following disorders has an increase in osmotic fragility?
    1. Iron deficiency anemia
    2. Hereditary elliptocytosis
    3. Hereditary stomatocytosis
    4. Hereditary spherocytosis ✔
  11. The anemia seen in sickle cell disease is usually:
    1. Microcytic, normochromic
    2. Microcytic, hypochromic
    3. Normocytic, normochromic ✔
    4. Normocytic, hypochromic
  12. Which is the major Hgb found in the RBC’s of patients with sickle cell trait?
    1. Hgb S
    2. Hgb F
    3. Hgb A2
    4. Hgb A ✔
  13. All of the following are usually found in Hgb C disease except:
    1. Hgb C crystals
    2. Target cells
    3. Lysine substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the B-chain
    4. Fast mobility of Hbg C at pH 8.6 ✔
  14. Which of the following hemoglobins migrates to the same position as Hgb A2 at pH 8.6?
    1. Hgb H
    2. Hgb F
    3. Hgb C ✔
    4. Hgb S
  15. Which of the following electrophoretic results is consistent with a diagnosis of sickle cell trait?
    1. Hgb A: 40% Hgb S: 35% Hgb F: 5%
    2. Hgb A: 60% Hgb S: 40% Hgb A2: 2% ✔
    3. Hgb A: 0% Hgb A2: 5% Hgb F: 95%
    4. Hgb A: 80% Hgb S: 10% Hgb A2: 10%
  16. In which of the following conditions will autosplenectomy most likely occur?
    1. Thalassemia major
    2. Hgb C disease
    3. Hgb SC disease
    4. Sickle cell disease ✔
  17. Whic of the following is most true about praoxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
    1. It is an acquired hemolytic anemia ✔
    2. It is inherited as a sex-linked trait
    3. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait
    4. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait
  18. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is characterized by all of the following except:
    1. Hemorrhage
    2. Thrombocytopenia
    3. Hemoglobinuria
    4. Reticulocytopenia ✔
  19. An autohemolysis test is positive in all the following areas except:
    1. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
    2. Hereditary spherocytosis
    3. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
    4. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria ✔
  20. Which antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)?
    1. Anti-I
    2. Anti-i
    3. Anti-M
    4. Anti-P ✔
Go to Mock Test Chapter 26
<< Chapter 25
Chapter 27 >>

The questions are typically designed to assess the technical skills and knowledge required for the laboratory profession, including the ability to analyze laboratory test results, perform laboratory procedures, and maintain laboratory equipment.

To prepare for these MCQs, candidates should have a thorough understanding of the key concepts and principles of laboratory science. They should also be familiar with common laboratory equipment and procedures, as well as laboratory safety protocols.

Candidates may also benefit from studying specific laboratory science textbooks or taking online courses that cover the material tested in the MCQs. Additionally, practicing sample MCQs and reviewing the answers can help candidates identify areas where they may need to improve their knowledge or skills.

Overall, the MCQs for lab technologists are designed to be challenging and comprehensive, requiring candidates to demonstrate a high level of proficiency in the field of laboratory science.

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