Chapter 5: MCQs for Doctors

Chapter 5: MCQs for Doctors and Medical Students for Exams and Interviews

5000 Plus MCQs for Doctors and Medical Students for Exams and Interviews. MCQs have long been a staple of medical education, and they continue to play a crucial role in the assessment of doctors and medical students. These questions typically consist of a stem, or a statement that poses a problem or question, followed by several options or answer choices, only one of which is correct. Doctors MCQs cover a wide range of topics, from basic sciences to clinical medicine, and they are used in a variety of contexts, including medical school exams, licensing and certification exams, and continuing medical education.

201 to 250 MCQs for Doctors and Medical Students for Exams and Interviews

Doctors MCQs cover a wide range of topics, from basic sciences to clinical medicine, and they are used in a variety of contexts, including medical school exams, licensing and certification exams, and continuing medical education.

201 to 250 MCQs

201. In males which hormone stimulates Sertoli cells to produce androgen binding globulin (ABG)?
     1. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
     2. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) ✔
     3. Oxytocin
     4. Gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH)
202. At what age should a child be referred to a paediatrician if they have not begun to walk?
     1. 18 months ✔
     2. 12 months
     3. 15 months
     4. 9 months
203. A resurgence of which hormone precipitates puberty?
     1. Oestrogen
     2. GnRH ✔
     3. Testosterone
     4. LH
     5. FSH
204. How is the seasonal flu vaccination usually administered in children aged 2 and 3?
     1. SC injection
     2. Orally
     3. Rectally
     4. Nasally ✔
     5. EIM injection
205. Which of the following sentences best describes meconium?
     1. The first stool when a child has been fully weaned.
     2. green stool.
     3. The first stool passed by a child. ✔
     4. The first stool after introduction of wheat.
     5. The first stool after introduction of feeds.
206. Around what age should a child be able to build a tower of three building blocks?
     1. 21 months
     2. 18 months ✔
     3. 15 months
     4. 9 months
     5. 12 months
207. At what age should a child develop a mature pincer grip?
     1. 3-6 months
     2. 2 years
     3. 9-12 months ✔
     4. 6-9 months
     5. 12-18 months
208. In normal fine motor development, which of the following should occur first?
     1. Copying a triangle
     2. Copying a circle ✔
     3. Drawing a square
     4. Tripod pencil grip
     5. Copying a cross
209. What is the cut-off for an acceptable weight loss in the first 7 days of life?
     1. 7%
     2. 10% ✔
     3. 5%
     4. 20%
     5. 15%
210. Which of the following should be avoided when weaning a child of 7 months?
     1. Wheat
     2. Formula milk
     3. Honey ✔
     4. Meat-containing products
     5. Breastmilk

211. Which of the following is an example of “Double-syllable babble” displayed by an infant around 9-12 months?
     1. Ma-da
     2. Ba-ma
     3. Ma-ba
     4. Ba-da
     5. Ba-ba ✔
212. What type of cardiomyopathy is most commonly associated with the sudden death of young athletes?
     1. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy ✔
     2. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
     3. Dilated cardiomyopathy
213. What are the classic signs of a cardiac tamponade?
     1. Hypotension, muffled heart sounds, increased jugular venous distension (JVD) ✔
     2. Tachycardia, dyspnoea, fever
     3. Bradycardia, weakness in arms, diaphoresis
     4. Hypertension, palpitations, chest pain
214. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is the most common congenital heart defect, what condition is it most likely to be associated with?
     1. Congenital rubella
     2. Down’s syndrome
     3. Fetal alcohol syndrome ✔
     4. Maternal diabetes
215. What are the characteristics of stable angina?
     1. Chest pain that occurs with exertion and/or emotional stress ✔
     2. Severe and crushing chest pain (>20 mins)
     3. Chest pain that occurs at rest
     4. Bradycardia
216. What is the most frequent etiologic agent of acute infective endocarditis in IV drug abusers?
     1. Streptococcus viridans
     2. Staphylococcus aureus ✔
     3. Staphylococcus epidermidis
     4. Streptococcus bovis
217. What is the key complication in the first 24 hours of an MI?
     1. Fibrinous pericarditis
     2. Coronary artery aneurysm
     3. Arrhythmia ✔
     4. Mitral insufficiency
218. What is the most commonly involved coronary artery in myocardial infarction (MI) ?
     1. Right coronary artery (RCA)
     2. Left anterior descending artery (LAD) ✔
     3. Left circumflex artery (LCA)
     4. Posterior descending artery (PDA)
219. What is the best description of Eisenmenger’s syndrome?
     1. It occurs when a right to left shunt becomes left to right due to a build-up of pressure on the left side of the heart.
     2. It is due to failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to spiral.
     3. It is due to lack or aorticopulmonary septum formation.
     4. An initial left to right shunt becomes right to left due to increased pulmonary blood flow and eventual right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH). ✔
220. What is the most common cause of right-sided heart failure?
     1. Left-sided heart failure ✔
     2. Chronic lung disease (Cor Pulmonale)
     3. Hypothyroidism
221. What gross histological change correlates with white blood cells’ (WBCs) invasion into cardiac tissue during the first week after an MI?
     1. Yellow pallor ✔
     2. Dark discolouration
     3. White scar
     4. Red border around yellow pallor
222. What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death (SCD)?
     1. Cocaine abuse
     2. Mitral valve prolapse
     3. Cardiomyopathy
     4. Ventricular arrhythmia ✔
223. What heart condition is Turner’s syndrome associated with?
     1. Tricuspid atresia
     2. Truncus arteriosus
     3. Coarctation of the aorta ✔
     4. Patent ductus arteriosus
224. What is the main complication of the macrophage phase (4 to 7 days) after an MI?
     1. Fibrinous pericarditis
     2. Arrhythmia
     3. Aneurysm / Mural thrombus / Dressler’s syndrome
     4. Cardiac tamponade / Shunt through the ventricular wall / Mitral insufficiency ✔
225. Choose the complete and accurate grouping of right to left shunts
     1. Atrial septal defect (ASD), Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
     2. Truncus arteriosus, Transposition of great vessels, Tricuspid atresia, Tetralogy of Fallot, Total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR) ✔
     3. ASD, TAPVR, VSD
     4. PDA, Truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of fallot
226. What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?
     1. Chronic rheumatic valve disease ✔
     2. Acute rheumatic fever
     3. Congestive heart failure
     4. Infective endocarditis
227. What does the ECG show in prinzmetal angina?
     1. ST segment elevation ✔
     2. ST segment depression
     3. Absent P waves
     4. Prolonged PR interval
228. Which of the following conditions is Marfan’s syndrome most commonly associated with?
     1. Endocarditis
     2. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
     3. Arrhythmia
     4. Aortic dissection ✔
229. What bone disorder is caused by an autosomal dominant defect in the synthesis of collagen type 1?
     1. Osteogenesis imperfecta ✔
     2. Achondroplasia
     3. Osteopetrosis
     4. Osteomyelitis
230. A patient presents with a heliotrope rash, a malar rash and Gottron’s papules on the elbows and knees. She cannot comb her hair or climb the stairs due to muscle weakness. Lab results show an increased creatine kinase, positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-Jo-1 antibody. Biopsy reveals perimysial inflammation with perifascicular atrophy. She is treated with corticosteroids. What disease does the patient have?
     1. Polymyositis
     2. X- linked muscular dystrophy
     3. Dermatomyositis ✔
     4. Rheumatoid arthritis

231. What bone tumour is associated with lifting of periosteum off bone producing the Codman triangle and a sunburst appearance on X-ray?
     1. Osteosarcoma ✔
     2. Osteoma
     3. Ewing sarcoma
     4. Chondroma
232. On biopsy, a mosaic pattern of lamellar bone is revealed. What disease is associated with these results?
     1. Osteoporosis
     2. Sickle cell disease
     3. Paget’s disease of bone ✔
     4. Osteopetrosis
233. Select the cause/s of vitamin D deficiency.
     1. Minimal sun exposure ✔
     2. Poor diet ✔
     3. Liver failure and renal failure ✔
     4. Malabsorption ✔
234. Acute gout presents as painful inflammation of the big toe which is referred to as podagra. What is an acute treatment for gout?
     1. Allopurinol
     2. Probenecid
     3. Febuxostat
     4. Colchicine ✔
235. What are the key lab features in osteomalacia?
     1. Normal serum calcium, normal serum phosphate, normal PTH, normal alkaline phosphatase
     2. ↑ serum calcium, ↓serum phosphate, ↑PTH, ↑alkaline phosphatase
     3. ↓ serum calcium, ↓ serum phosphate, ↑ PTH, ↑ alkaline phosphatase ✔
     4. ↓ serum calcium , ↑ serum phosphate , ↑PTH, ↑alkaline phosphatase
236. Synovial fluid was sampled for a joint condition and rhomboid shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence under polarised light were found. What joint disease is this an indicator of?
     1. Pseudogout ✔
     2. Gout
     3. Rheumatoid arthritis
     4. Osteoarthritis
237. Achondroplasia is a disorder of bone whereby there is a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene leading to impaired cartilage proliferation in the growth plate. Why is it that affected children have a normal sized head and vertebral column whilst arms and legs are shortened?
     1. Growth hormone and insulin like growth factor 1 levels only affect long bones
     2. Intramembranous bone formation (flat bones) vs endochondral bone formation (long bones) ✔
     3. Flat bones are less susceptible to fracture
     4. Difference in bone density
238. What is the pathogenesis of osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)?
     1. Poor osteoclast function due to a carbonic anhydrase II mutation ✔
     2. Defective mineralization of osteoid
     3. Reduction in trabecular bone mass
     4. Imbalance between osteoclast and osteoblast activity with an osteoclastic phase, a mixed osteoclastic- osteoblastic phase followed by an osteoblastic phase
239. Which joint disease is associated with morning stiffness that improves with activity?
     1. Osteoarthritis
     2. Gout
     3. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)D ✔
     4. Ankylosing spondylitis
240. What is the pathogenesis of pemphigus vulgaris?
     1. IgG antibody against desmoglein ✔
     2. IgG antibody against hemidesmosome components
     3. Autoimmune deposition of IgA at tips of dermal papillae
     4. DEnzyme defect in tyrosinase
241. What condition is associated with this presentation? A pink pearly nodule with telangiectasias, ulceration and rolled borders on the upper lip.
     1. Squamous cell carcinoma
     2. Basal cell carcinoma ✔
     3. Melanoma
     4. Eczema
242. How does impetigo present?
     1. Golden honey coloured crust over an erythematous base✔
     2. Salmon coloured plaque with silvery scale
     3. Comedones, pustules and nodules
     4. Flesh coloured papule with a rough surface
243. What is the pathogenesis of vitiligo?
     1. Congenital lack of pigmentation
     2. Increase in the number of melanosomes
     3. Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes✔
     4. Benign proliferation of melanocytes
244. What disease is associated with dermatitis herpetiformis?
     1. Herpes
     2. Coeliac disease ✔
     3. Atopic dermatitis
     4. Melanoma
245. What childhood infection is associated with Koplik spots?
     1. Measles✔
     2. Rubella
     3. Varicella
     4. Fifth disease
246. What type of melanoma is often seen in dark skinned individuals?
     1. Superficial spreading
     2. Lentigo maligna melanoma
     3. Nodular
     4. Acral lentiginous✔
247. What is the best indicator of prognosis for a melanoma?
     1. Asymmetry
     2. Colour
     3. Diameter
     4. Invasion of the dermis ✔
248. How does lichen planus present clinically?
     1. Salmon coloured plaques with silvery scale
     2. Pruritic, red, oozing rash with edema
     3. Golden coloured crusts
     4. Pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar papules and plaques ✔
249. What are the histological findings of psoriasis?
     1. Inflammation of the dermal-epidermal junction
     2. Peripheral palisading of basal cells
     3. Acanthosis, Parakeratosis and Munro microabscesses ✔
     4. Keratin pseudocysts
250. What is the most common causative agent of erythema multiforme (EM)?
     1. Penicillin and sulphonamides
     2. Systemic lupus erythematosus
     3. HSV infection ✔
     4. Malignancy

One of the advantages of MCQs is that they can test a large amount of information in a relatively short amount of time. This is especially important in medical education, where there is an overwhelming amount of information that needs to be learned and assessed. MCQs also allow for objective and standardized grading, which is essential for ensuring fairness and consistency in assessment.

However, designing effective MCQs can be a challenging task, and there are several key principles that need to be followed to ensure that these questions are reliable, valid, and useful. One of the most important principles is to ensure that the questions are written in a clear and concise manner, with a stem that accurately reflects the knowledge and skills that are being assessed. The answer options should be well-differentiated and plausible, and the correct answer should be defensible and based on sound clinical reasoning.

Another important principle is to ensure that the MCQs cover a representative sample of the knowledge and skills that are required for the specific exam or assessment. This means that the questions should be designed to test both basic and advanced knowledge, and they should cover a range of topics and clinical scenarios. The questions should also be designed to test different levels of cognitive complexity, from simple recall of facts to higher-order thinking and problem-solving.

There are several different types of MCQs that can be used to assess doctors, each with its own advantages and disadvantages. One common type is the single best answer MCQ, where the stem is followed by several options, only one of which is the correct answer. This type of MCQ is relatively straightforward to write and grade, and it is useful for testing basic knowledge and clinical reasoning.

Another type of MCQ is the extended matching item (EMI), which consists of a list of options that are matched to several stems or clinical scenarios. This type of MCQ is useful for testing a broad range of knowledge and skills, and it can be particularly effective for testing diagnostic reasoning and clinical decision-making.

A third type of MCQ is the key feature question (KFQ), which is designed to test the ability to identify important clinical features and to make appropriate management decisions. This type of MCQ is useful for testing advanced knowledge and clinical reasoning, and it can be particularly effective for testing the ability to integrate multiple pieces of information and to make complex decisions.

Regardless of the type of MCQ used, it is important to ensure that the questions are of high quality and that they accurately reflect the knowledge and skills required for the specific exam or assessment. This requires careful attention to the design and development of the questions, as well as rigorous testing and validation to ensure that they are reliable, valid, and useful.

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Possible References Used

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